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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
A fund manager at a UK-based investment firm is constructing a portfolio by combining two existing portfolios, Portfolio A and Portfolio B. Portfolio A, which constitutes 60% of the new combined portfolio, has a beta of 0.8. Portfolio B, making up the remaining 40%, has a beta of 1.5. The current risk-free rate, as indicated by UK government bonds, is 3%, and the expected market return is 11%. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), and assuming no other factors influence the required rate of return, what is the required rate of return for the combined portfolio?
Correct
To solve this problem, we need to understand the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and how to calculate the required rate of return for an investment. CAPM is defined as: \[Required\ Rate\ of\ Return = Risk-Free\ Rate + Beta * (Market\ Return – Risk-Free\ Rate)\] First, calculate the market risk premium: \[Market\ Risk\ Premium = Market\ Return – Risk-Free\ Rate = 11\% – 3\% = 8\%\] Next, calculate the required rate of return for Portfolio A: \[Required\ Rate\ of\ Return_A = 3\% + 0.8 * 8\% = 3\% + 6.4\% = 9.4\%\] Then, calculate the required rate of return for Portfolio B: \[Required\ Rate\ of\ Return_B = 3\% + 1.5 * 8\% = 3\% + 12\% = 15\%\] Now, calculate the weighted average required rate of return for the combined portfolio: \[Weighted\ Average\ Return = (Weight_A * Return_A) + (Weight_B * Return_B)\] \[Weighted\ Average\ Return = (0.6 * 9.4\%) + (0.4 * 15\%) = 5.64\% + 6\% = 11.64\%\] Therefore, the required rate of return for the combined portfolio is 11.64%. Imagine a scenario where a fund manager is building a portfolio using two distinct asset classes. Portfolio A consists of stable, dividend-paying stocks, similar to mature oak trees that provide consistent shade (dividends) but grow slowly. Portfolio B comprises high-growth technology stocks, akin to fast-growing bamboo shoots that offer rapid potential but are more susceptible to market winds (volatility). The CAPM helps the fund manager determine the appropriate return expectation for this combined “forest” based on the individual risk profiles of the “trees” and “bamboo.” A crucial aspect of CAPM is the concept of beta, which measures a portfolio’s sensitivity to market movements. A beta of 0.8 for Portfolio A indicates it’s less volatile than the market, while a beta of 1.5 for Portfolio B suggests it’s more volatile. By understanding these betas and the market risk premium, the fund manager can estimate the return required to compensate for the inherent risks. The weighted average calculation then blends these individual return requirements into a single, cohesive target for the entire portfolio. This ensures that the overall portfolio return is commensurate with its combined risk profile, balancing the stability of the “oak trees” with the growth potential of the “bamboo shoots.”
Incorrect
To solve this problem, we need to understand the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and how to calculate the required rate of return for an investment. CAPM is defined as: \[Required\ Rate\ of\ Return = Risk-Free\ Rate + Beta * (Market\ Return – Risk-Free\ Rate)\] First, calculate the market risk premium: \[Market\ Risk\ Premium = Market\ Return – Risk-Free\ Rate = 11\% – 3\% = 8\%\] Next, calculate the required rate of return for Portfolio A: \[Required\ Rate\ of\ Return_A = 3\% + 0.8 * 8\% = 3\% + 6.4\% = 9.4\%\] Then, calculate the required rate of return for Portfolio B: \[Required\ Rate\ of\ Return_B = 3\% + 1.5 * 8\% = 3\% + 12\% = 15\%\] Now, calculate the weighted average required rate of return for the combined portfolio: \[Weighted\ Average\ Return = (Weight_A * Return_A) + (Weight_B * Return_B)\] \[Weighted\ Average\ Return = (0.6 * 9.4\%) + (0.4 * 15\%) = 5.64\% + 6\% = 11.64\%\] Therefore, the required rate of return for the combined portfolio is 11.64%. Imagine a scenario where a fund manager is building a portfolio using two distinct asset classes. Portfolio A consists of stable, dividend-paying stocks, similar to mature oak trees that provide consistent shade (dividends) but grow slowly. Portfolio B comprises high-growth technology stocks, akin to fast-growing bamboo shoots that offer rapid potential but are more susceptible to market winds (volatility). The CAPM helps the fund manager determine the appropriate return expectation for this combined “forest” based on the individual risk profiles of the “trees” and “bamboo.” A crucial aspect of CAPM is the concept of beta, which measures a portfolio’s sensitivity to market movements. A beta of 0.8 for Portfolio A indicates it’s less volatile than the market, while a beta of 1.5 for Portfolio B suggests it’s more volatile. By understanding these betas and the market risk premium, the fund manager can estimate the return required to compensate for the inherent risks. The weighted average calculation then blends these individual return requirements into a single, cohesive target for the entire portfolio. This ensures that the overall portfolio return is commensurate with its combined risk profile, balancing the stability of the “oak trees” with the growth potential of the “bamboo shoots.”
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
A fund manager, Sarah, manages a UK-based equity portfolio with a consistent annual return of 12% and a standard deviation of 15%. The current risk-free rate, as indicated by the yield on UK Gilts, is 3%. Sarah’s performance is evaluated primarily using the Sharpe ratio. Due to recent changes in the Bank of England’s monetary policy, the yield on UK Gilts has risen to 5%. Assuming Sarah’s portfolio return and standard deviation remain unchanged, what is the approximate percentage change in the Sharpe ratio of Sarah’s portfolio? Consider the implications of this change for Sarah’s performance evaluation and the fund’s attractiveness to investors under the FCA’s regulatory framework.
Correct
To determine the impact of a change in the risk-free rate on the Sharpe ratio, we need to understand how the Sharpe ratio is calculated and what components are affected by the risk-free rate. The Sharpe ratio is defined as: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation In this scenario, the portfolio return and standard deviation remain constant, while the risk-free rate increases. This change directly affects the numerator of the Sharpe ratio. Let’s calculate the initial and final Sharpe ratios to quantify the impact. Initial Sharpe Ratio: Portfolio Return = 12% Risk-Free Rate = 3% Standard Deviation = 15% Initial Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 15% = 9% / 15% = 0.6 New Sharpe Ratio: Portfolio Return = 12% New Risk-Free Rate = 5% Standard Deviation = 15% New Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 5%) / 15% = 7% / 15% ≈ 0.467 Percentage Change in Sharpe Ratio: Percentage Change = [(New Sharpe Ratio – Initial Sharpe Ratio) / Initial Sharpe Ratio] * 100 Percentage Change = [(0.467 – 0.6) / 0.6] * 100 Percentage Change = (-0.133 / 0.6) * 100 Percentage Change ≈ -22.17% Therefore, the Sharpe ratio decreases by approximately 22.17%. The Sharpe ratio is a crucial metric for evaluating risk-adjusted returns. A higher Sharpe ratio indicates better performance relative to the risk taken. In this case, the increase in the risk-free rate reduces the excess return (portfolio return minus risk-free rate), thereby lowering the Sharpe ratio. This demonstrates that even if a portfolio’s performance remains constant, changes in the economic environment (specifically, the risk-free rate) can significantly impact its risk-adjusted performance. For example, consider two portfolios, Alpha and Beta, both with a return of 15% and a standard deviation of 20%. If the risk-free rate increases from 2% to 6%, Alpha’s Sharpe ratio decreases more significantly than Beta’s if Beta had implemented hedging strategies that slightly lowered its return to 14% but also reduced its standard deviation to 18%. This highlights that risk management and strategic adjustments become even more critical when economic conditions change.
Incorrect
To determine the impact of a change in the risk-free rate on the Sharpe ratio, we need to understand how the Sharpe ratio is calculated and what components are affected by the risk-free rate. The Sharpe ratio is defined as: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation In this scenario, the portfolio return and standard deviation remain constant, while the risk-free rate increases. This change directly affects the numerator of the Sharpe ratio. Let’s calculate the initial and final Sharpe ratios to quantify the impact. Initial Sharpe Ratio: Portfolio Return = 12% Risk-Free Rate = 3% Standard Deviation = 15% Initial Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 15% = 9% / 15% = 0.6 New Sharpe Ratio: Portfolio Return = 12% New Risk-Free Rate = 5% Standard Deviation = 15% New Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 5%) / 15% = 7% / 15% ≈ 0.467 Percentage Change in Sharpe Ratio: Percentage Change = [(New Sharpe Ratio – Initial Sharpe Ratio) / Initial Sharpe Ratio] * 100 Percentage Change = [(0.467 – 0.6) / 0.6] * 100 Percentage Change = (-0.133 / 0.6) * 100 Percentage Change ≈ -22.17% Therefore, the Sharpe ratio decreases by approximately 22.17%. The Sharpe ratio is a crucial metric for evaluating risk-adjusted returns. A higher Sharpe ratio indicates better performance relative to the risk taken. In this case, the increase in the risk-free rate reduces the excess return (portfolio return minus risk-free rate), thereby lowering the Sharpe ratio. This demonstrates that even if a portfolio’s performance remains constant, changes in the economic environment (specifically, the risk-free rate) can significantly impact its risk-adjusted performance. For example, consider two portfolios, Alpha and Beta, both with a return of 15% and a standard deviation of 20%. If the risk-free rate increases from 2% to 6%, Alpha’s Sharpe ratio decreases more significantly than Beta’s if Beta had implemented hedging strategies that slightly lowered its return to 14% but also reduced its standard deviation to 18%. This highlights that risk management and strategic adjustments become even more critical when economic conditions change.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Amelia Stone, a fund manager at a London-based investment firm, is evaluating a potential investment in a mid-sized infrastructure company listed on the FTSE 250. The investment exhibits a beta of 1.2 relative to the FTSE 250. The current risk-free rate, as indicated by UK government bonds, is 3%, and the expected market return for the FTSE 250 is 10%. Amelia believes this infrastructure company is relatively illiquid compared to other FTSE 250 constituents due to its lower trading volume, requiring a liquidity premium of 2%. Furthermore, new regulations regarding environmental impact assessments for infrastructure projects are expected to increase operational costs for companies in this sector. Amelia decides to incorporate an additional risk premium of 1% to account for the potential impact of these new regulations. Based on this information and using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), what is the minimum required rate of return Amelia should target for this investment, considering market risk, illiquidity, and the regulatory risk?
Correct
Let’s break down how to calculate the required rate of return using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and then adjust it for the specific scenario presented. The CAPM formula is: Required Rate of Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate). This gives us the baseline return an investor should expect for taking on the risk of a particular investment relative to the market. In this scenario, we’re given a risk-free rate of 3%, a market return of 10%, and a beta of 1.2. Plugging these values into the CAPM formula: Required Rate of Return = 3% + 1.2 * (10% – 3%) = 3% + 1.2 * 7% = 3% + 8.4% = 11.4%. However, the fund manager, Amelia, adds a liquidity premium. This premium compensates investors for the difficulty in quickly selling an asset without significantly impacting its price. Liquidity is crucial; imagine trying to sell a large block of shares in a thinly traded company – you might have to accept a much lower price to find a buyer quickly. This is a real cost and a real risk. Amelia applies a 2% liquidity premium to compensate for the relatively illiquid nature of the investment. Therefore, we add this premium to the CAPM-derived required rate of return: Adjusted Required Rate of Return = 11.4% + 2% = 13.4%. Finally, Amelia also considers the potential impact of a new regulatory change impacting the sector. The new regulation introduces additional compliance costs, and therefore increases the operational risk. She increases the required rate of return by 1% to account for this increased risk. The final required rate of return becomes: 13.4% + 1% = 14.4% Therefore, the final required rate of return, considering the market risk, illiquidity, and regulatory risk, is 14.4%. This is the minimum return Amelia should target to justify the investment, given the various risks involved.
Incorrect
Let’s break down how to calculate the required rate of return using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and then adjust it for the specific scenario presented. The CAPM formula is: Required Rate of Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate). This gives us the baseline return an investor should expect for taking on the risk of a particular investment relative to the market. In this scenario, we’re given a risk-free rate of 3%, a market return of 10%, and a beta of 1.2. Plugging these values into the CAPM formula: Required Rate of Return = 3% + 1.2 * (10% – 3%) = 3% + 1.2 * 7% = 3% + 8.4% = 11.4%. However, the fund manager, Amelia, adds a liquidity premium. This premium compensates investors for the difficulty in quickly selling an asset without significantly impacting its price. Liquidity is crucial; imagine trying to sell a large block of shares in a thinly traded company – you might have to accept a much lower price to find a buyer quickly. This is a real cost and a real risk. Amelia applies a 2% liquidity premium to compensate for the relatively illiquid nature of the investment. Therefore, we add this premium to the CAPM-derived required rate of return: Adjusted Required Rate of Return = 11.4% + 2% = 13.4%. Finally, Amelia also considers the potential impact of a new regulatory change impacting the sector. The new regulation introduces additional compliance costs, and therefore increases the operational risk. She increases the required rate of return by 1% to account for this increased risk. The final required rate of return becomes: 13.4% + 1% = 14.4% Therefore, the final required rate of return, considering the market risk, illiquidity, and regulatory risk, is 14.4%. This is the minimum return Amelia should target to justify the investment, given the various risks involved.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
An investment analyst is evaluating Fund Omega’s performance. Over the past year, Fund Omega generated a return of 15%. The risk-free rate was 3%, the market return was 10%, Fund Omega’s standard deviation was 12%, and its beta was 1.2. The analyst wants to determine the fund’s Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio to assess its risk-adjusted performance and value added. Which of the following statements accurately reflects Fund Omega’s performance metrics, considering the regulatory environment in the UK where fund managers must adhere to FCA guidelines regarding fair and transparent performance reporting?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. Beta measures the systematic risk or volatility of an investment relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the investment’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates higher volatility than the market, while a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. It indicates the return earned for each unit of systematic risk. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio for Fund Omega. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation = (15% – 3%) / 12% = 12% / 12% = 1.0 Alpha = Portfolio Return – [Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate)] = 15% – [3% + 1.2 * (10% – 3%)] = 15% – [3% + 1.2 * 7%] = 15% – [3% + 8.4%] = 15% – 11.4% = 3.6% Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta = (15% – 3%) / 1.2 = 12% / 1.2 = 10% The Sharpe Ratio is 1.0, indicating that for each unit of total risk taken, the fund generated one unit of excess return. The Alpha is 3.6%, meaning the fund outperformed its expected return based on its beta and the market return by 3.6%. This suggests the fund manager added value through stock selection or market timing. The Treynor Ratio is 10%, which indicates the fund generated 10% of excess return for each unit of systematic risk. Consider two hypothetical funds, Fund Alpha and Fund Beta. Fund Alpha has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.8, while Fund Beta has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.2. Fund Beta provides better risk-adjusted returns. Now, consider Fund Gamma with a beta of 0.8 and Fund Delta with a beta of 1.5. If both funds have the same return, Fund Gamma is less volatile than Fund Delta. Lastly, if Fund Echo has an alpha of -2%, and Fund Foxtrot has an alpha of 3%, Fund Foxtrot has outperformed its expected return, while Fund Echo has underperformed.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. Beta measures the systematic risk or volatility of an investment relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the investment’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates higher volatility than the market, while a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. It indicates the return earned for each unit of systematic risk. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio for Fund Omega. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation = (15% – 3%) / 12% = 12% / 12% = 1.0 Alpha = Portfolio Return – [Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate)] = 15% – [3% + 1.2 * (10% – 3%)] = 15% – [3% + 1.2 * 7%] = 15% – [3% + 8.4%] = 15% – 11.4% = 3.6% Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta = (15% – 3%) / 1.2 = 12% / 1.2 = 10% The Sharpe Ratio is 1.0, indicating that for each unit of total risk taken, the fund generated one unit of excess return. The Alpha is 3.6%, meaning the fund outperformed its expected return based on its beta and the market return by 3.6%. This suggests the fund manager added value through stock selection or market timing. The Treynor Ratio is 10%, which indicates the fund generated 10% of excess return for each unit of systematic risk. Consider two hypothetical funds, Fund Alpha and Fund Beta. Fund Alpha has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.8, while Fund Beta has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.2. Fund Beta provides better risk-adjusted returns. Now, consider Fund Gamma with a beta of 0.8 and Fund Delta with a beta of 1.5. If both funds have the same return, Fund Gamma is less volatile than Fund Delta. Lastly, if Fund Echo has an alpha of -2%, and Fund Foxtrot has an alpha of 3%, Fund Foxtrot has outperformed its expected return, while Fund Echo has underperformed.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Apex Dynamic Growth, an actively managed fund focusing on UK equities within the FTSE 250, reported a return of 15% over the past year. During the same period, the yield on UK Gilts, representing the risk-free rate, averaged 3%. The fund’s beta, calculated against the FTSE 250 index, is 1.2. The fund’s investment policy statement emphasizes a focus on managing systematic risk, as the majority of its investors hold well-diversified portfolios across multiple asset classes. Given this scenario, and assuming the fund operates under the regulatory framework established by the FCA, which of the following statements best describes the fund’s risk-adjusted performance, considering the specific risk metric most suitable for its stated investment objectives and investor profile?
Correct
Let’s analyze the scenario involving the actively managed fund, “Apex Dynamic Growth.” The fund’s investment strategy focuses on identifying undervalued growth stocks within the UK’s FTSE 250 index. To assess the fund manager’s performance, we need to calculate the Treynor Ratio. The Treynor Ratio measures the risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk (beta). It is calculated as: Treynor Ratio = (Fund Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Beta In this scenario, Apex Dynamic Growth generated a return of 15%. The risk-free rate, represented by the yield on UK Gilts, is 3%. The fund’s beta, a measure of its systematic risk compared to the FTSE 250 index, is 1.2. Therefore, the Treynor Ratio calculation is: Treynor Ratio = (15% – 3%) / 1.2 = 12% / 1.2 = 0.10 or 10% Now, let’s delve into why this calculation is significant and how it differs from other performance metrics like the Sharpe Ratio and Jensen’s Alpha. The Treynor Ratio focuses solely on systematic risk, making it particularly useful for investors holding well-diversified portfolios. In contrast, the Sharpe Ratio considers total risk (both systematic and unsystematic), while Jensen’s Alpha measures the excess return relative to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). Imagine two fund managers: Manager A and Manager B. Both generate the same return, but Manager A has a higher beta. The Treynor Ratio would favor Manager B, indicating superior risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. Conversely, if an investor is not well-diversified, the Sharpe Ratio might be a more appropriate measure. Furthermore, the Treynor Ratio assumes a linear relationship between risk and return, as defined by the Security Market Line (SML). If the relationship deviates significantly from linearity, the Treynor Ratio’s effectiveness may be limited. For instance, during periods of extreme market volatility, the relationship between beta and returns can become unstable, potentially distorting the Treynor Ratio’s interpretation. In summary, the Treynor Ratio provides a valuable tool for evaluating fund performance, especially for diversified portfolios, by focusing on systematic risk. Understanding its strengths and limitations is crucial for making informed investment decisions.
Incorrect
Let’s analyze the scenario involving the actively managed fund, “Apex Dynamic Growth.” The fund’s investment strategy focuses on identifying undervalued growth stocks within the UK’s FTSE 250 index. To assess the fund manager’s performance, we need to calculate the Treynor Ratio. The Treynor Ratio measures the risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk (beta). It is calculated as: Treynor Ratio = (Fund Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Beta In this scenario, Apex Dynamic Growth generated a return of 15%. The risk-free rate, represented by the yield on UK Gilts, is 3%. The fund’s beta, a measure of its systematic risk compared to the FTSE 250 index, is 1.2. Therefore, the Treynor Ratio calculation is: Treynor Ratio = (15% – 3%) / 1.2 = 12% / 1.2 = 0.10 or 10% Now, let’s delve into why this calculation is significant and how it differs from other performance metrics like the Sharpe Ratio and Jensen’s Alpha. The Treynor Ratio focuses solely on systematic risk, making it particularly useful for investors holding well-diversified portfolios. In contrast, the Sharpe Ratio considers total risk (both systematic and unsystematic), while Jensen’s Alpha measures the excess return relative to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). Imagine two fund managers: Manager A and Manager B. Both generate the same return, but Manager A has a higher beta. The Treynor Ratio would favor Manager B, indicating superior risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. Conversely, if an investor is not well-diversified, the Sharpe Ratio might be a more appropriate measure. Furthermore, the Treynor Ratio assumes a linear relationship between risk and return, as defined by the Security Market Line (SML). If the relationship deviates significantly from linearity, the Treynor Ratio’s effectiveness may be limited. For instance, during periods of extreme market volatility, the relationship between beta and returns can become unstable, potentially distorting the Treynor Ratio’s interpretation. In summary, the Treynor Ratio provides a valuable tool for evaluating fund performance, especially for diversified portfolios, by focusing on systematic risk. Understanding its strengths and limitations is crucial for making informed investment decisions.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Global Tech Fund, managed by Athena Investments, has delivered an annual return of 18% over the past year. The portfolio’s standard deviation is 15%. The risk-free rate is currently 2%, and the fund has a beta of 1.2 relative to the FTSE Global All Cap Index, which returned 12% during the same period. A prospective client, Mr. Harrison, is evaluating the fund’s performance and risk metrics against its benchmark. Given this information, calculate the fund’s Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio. Based on these calculations, how would you describe the fund’s performance relative to the market index, considering risk-adjusted returns and systematic risk exposure?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio compared to its benchmark. A positive alpha indicates outperformance, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Beta measures a portfolio’s systematic risk or volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates that the portfolio’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 suggests the portfolio is more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 suggests it is less volatile. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio for the Global Tech Fund and compare it to the market index. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation = (18% – 2%) / 15% = 1.0667 Alpha = Portfolio Return – [Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate)] = 18% – [2% + 1.2 * (12% – 2%)] = 18% – [2% + 1.2 * 10%] = 18% – 14% = 4% Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta = (18% – 2%) / 1.2 = 16% / 1.2 = 0.1333 or 13.33% Beta is already given as 1.2. The fund has a positive alpha of 4%, indicating it outperformed its benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis. The Sharpe Ratio of 1.0667 suggests favorable risk-adjusted returns relative to the risk-free rate. The Treynor Ratio of 13.33% also indicates a positive risk-adjusted return, considering the fund’s beta.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio compared to its benchmark. A positive alpha indicates outperformance, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Beta measures a portfolio’s systematic risk or volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates that the portfolio’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 suggests the portfolio is more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 suggests it is less volatile. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio for the Global Tech Fund and compare it to the market index. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation = (18% – 2%) / 15% = 1.0667 Alpha = Portfolio Return – [Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate)] = 18% – [2% + 1.2 * (12% – 2%)] = 18% – [2% + 1.2 * 10%] = 18% – 14% = 4% Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta = (18% – 2%) / 1.2 = 16% / 1.2 = 0.1333 or 13.33% Beta is already given as 1.2. The fund has a positive alpha of 4%, indicating it outperformed its benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis. The Sharpe Ratio of 1.0667 suggests favorable risk-adjusted returns relative to the risk-free rate. The Treynor Ratio of 13.33% also indicates a positive risk-adjusted return, considering the fund’s beta.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
A fund manager at “Global Investments UK” is constructing a portfolio with a target return of 8%. The portfolio will consist of 70% equities and 30% fixed income. The fixed income allocation is expected to return 4% and has a beta of 0.5. The overall portfolio beta is targeted at 1.1. Given this information, and assuming the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) holds, what is the implied risk-free rate if the market risk premium is 5%? This scenario requires you to reverse-engineer the CAPM, considering the portfolio’s target return, asset allocation, and beta. This isn’t a simple CAPM calculation; it’s about understanding how asset allocation influences the implied market parameters.
Correct
Let’s break down the calculation and reasoning behind this asset allocation problem. First, we need to calculate the required return on equity. We know the overall portfolio return (8%), the allocation to fixed income (30%), and the return on fixed income (4%). This allows us to isolate the return needed from the equity portion. The weighted average return of the portfolio is: Portfolio Return = (Weight of Equity * Return on Equity) + (Weight of Fixed Income * Return on Fixed Income) 8% = (0.7 * Return on Equity) + (0.3 * 4%) 8% = 0.7 * Return on Equity + 1.2% 6.8% = 0.7 * Return on Equity Return on Equity = 6.8% / 0.7 = 9.71% Next, we need to calculate the portfolio beta. The portfolio beta is the weighted average of the betas of the individual assets. We know the portfolio beta (1.1) and the beta of the fixed income portion (0.5). This allows us to solve for the beta of the equity portion. Portfolio Beta = (Weight of Equity * Beta of Equity) + (Weight of Fixed Income * Beta of Fixed Income) 1. 1 = (0.7 * Beta of Equity) + (0.3 * 0.5) 2. 1 = 0.7 * Beta of Equity + 0.15 3. 95 = 0.7 * Beta of Equity Beta of Equity = 0.95 / 0.7 = 1.36 Now, we can use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) to determine the required return on the equity portion. The CAPM formula is: Required Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) We already calculated the required return on equity to be 9.71% and the beta of equity to be 1.36. Let’s plug these values into the CAPM formula: 9. 71% = Risk-Free Rate + 1.36 * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) We are given that the market risk premium (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) is 5%. Therefore: 9. 71% = Risk-Free Rate + 1.36 * 5% 10. 71% = Risk-Free Rate + 6.8% Risk-Free Rate = 9.71% – 6.8% = 2.91% Therefore, the risk-free rate implied by the portfolio’s asset allocation, return characteristics, and the CAPM is approximately 2.91%. Consider a scenario where a fund manager is strategically allocating assets. Understanding the interplay between target returns, asset betas, and the CAPM is crucial. If the fund’s mandate dictates a specific overall return and beta, the manager must carefully select asset classes and their respective weights to achieve these targets. This often involves a trade-off: higher returns typically come with higher betas (and thus, higher risk). In this case, the manager is essentially working backward from the desired portfolio characteristics to infer the market conditions (risk-free rate) implied by those choices. This highlights the importance of aligning asset allocation decisions with market realities and investor expectations.
Incorrect
Let’s break down the calculation and reasoning behind this asset allocation problem. First, we need to calculate the required return on equity. We know the overall portfolio return (8%), the allocation to fixed income (30%), and the return on fixed income (4%). This allows us to isolate the return needed from the equity portion. The weighted average return of the portfolio is: Portfolio Return = (Weight of Equity * Return on Equity) + (Weight of Fixed Income * Return on Fixed Income) 8% = (0.7 * Return on Equity) + (0.3 * 4%) 8% = 0.7 * Return on Equity + 1.2% 6.8% = 0.7 * Return on Equity Return on Equity = 6.8% / 0.7 = 9.71% Next, we need to calculate the portfolio beta. The portfolio beta is the weighted average of the betas of the individual assets. We know the portfolio beta (1.1) and the beta of the fixed income portion (0.5). This allows us to solve for the beta of the equity portion. Portfolio Beta = (Weight of Equity * Beta of Equity) + (Weight of Fixed Income * Beta of Fixed Income) 1. 1 = (0.7 * Beta of Equity) + (0.3 * 0.5) 2. 1 = 0.7 * Beta of Equity + 0.15 3. 95 = 0.7 * Beta of Equity Beta of Equity = 0.95 / 0.7 = 1.36 Now, we can use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) to determine the required return on the equity portion. The CAPM formula is: Required Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) We already calculated the required return on equity to be 9.71% and the beta of equity to be 1.36. Let’s plug these values into the CAPM formula: 9. 71% = Risk-Free Rate + 1.36 * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) We are given that the market risk premium (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) is 5%. Therefore: 9. 71% = Risk-Free Rate + 1.36 * 5% 10. 71% = Risk-Free Rate + 6.8% Risk-Free Rate = 9.71% – 6.8% = 2.91% Therefore, the risk-free rate implied by the portfolio’s asset allocation, return characteristics, and the CAPM is approximately 2.91%. Consider a scenario where a fund manager is strategically allocating assets. Understanding the interplay between target returns, asset betas, and the CAPM is crucial. If the fund’s mandate dictates a specific overall return and beta, the manager must carefully select asset classes and their respective weights to achieve these targets. This often involves a trade-off: higher returns typically come with higher betas (and thus, higher risk). In this case, the manager is essentially working backward from the desired portfolio characteristics to infer the market conditions (risk-free rate) implied by those choices. This highlights the importance of aligning asset allocation decisions with market realities and investor expectations.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
A high-net-worth individual, Mr. Alistair Humphrey, seeks your advice on constructing an optimal portfolio using two asset classes: Asset A, a diversified equity fund with an expected return of 12% and a standard deviation of 18%, and Asset B, a corporate bond fund with an expected return of 6% and a standard deviation of 8%. The correlation between Asset A and Asset B is 0.3. Mr. Humphrey has a risk aversion coefficient of 3.5. Assuming a risk-free rate of 2%, and that Mr. Humphrey aims to maximize his portfolio’s risk-adjusted return, what is the approximate optimal percentage allocation to Asset A that aligns with Mr. Humphrey’s risk tolerance and investment objectives, considering the regulatory guidelines for suitability as per the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)?
Correct
To determine the optimal asset allocation, we must consider the investor’s risk tolerance and the risk-return characteristics of the available asset classes. The Sharpe Ratio is a crucial metric for evaluating risk-adjusted return, calculated as \(\frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\), where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The Capital Allocation Line (CAL) represents all possible combinations of a risky asset and a risk-free asset. The optimal portfolio lies on the CAL at the point of tangency with the investor’s highest possible indifference curve. This point maximizes the investor’s utility, balancing risk and return according to their preferences. In this scenario, we are given the expected return and standard deviation for both Asset A and Asset B, as well as the correlation between them. We also know the investor’s risk aversion coefficient. The investor’s utility is maximized where the CAL is tangent to their indifference curve. The Sharpe Ratio helps determine the slope of the CAL, and the investor’s risk aversion determines the optimal allocation along that line. The correlation between assets influences the overall portfolio risk; lower correlation provides greater diversification benefits. The investor’s risk aversion coefficient dictates how much risk they are willing to take for a given level of return. A higher risk aversion coefficient means the investor requires a greater increase in expected return to compensate for an increase in risk. The optimal allocation is found by maximizing the investor’s utility function, which incorporates their risk aversion and the portfolio’s risk-adjusted return. By calculating the Sharpe Ratio and considering the investor’s risk aversion, we can pinpoint the asset allocation that provides the highest utility.
Incorrect
To determine the optimal asset allocation, we must consider the investor’s risk tolerance and the risk-return characteristics of the available asset classes. The Sharpe Ratio is a crucial metric for evaluating risk-adjusted return, calculated as \(\frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\), where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The Capital Allocation Line (CAL) represents all possible combinations of a risky asset and a risk-free asset. The optimal portfolio lies on the CAL at the point of tangency with the investor’s highest possible indifference curve. This point maximizes the investor’s utility, balancing risk and return according to their preferences. In this scenario, we are given the expected return and standard deviation for both Asset A and Asset B, as well as the correlation between them. We also know the investor’s risk aversion coefficient. The investor’s utility is maximized where the CAL is tangent to their indifference curve. The Sharpe Ratio helps determine the slope of the CAL, and the investor’s risk aversion determines the optimal allocation along that line. The correlation between assets influences the overall portfolio risk; lower correlation provides greater diversification benefits. The investor’s risk aversion coefficient dictates how much risk they are willing to take for a given level of return. A higher risk aversion coefficient means the investor requires a greater increase in expected return to compensate for an increase in risk. The optimal allocation is found by maximizing the investor’s utility function, which incorporates their risk aversion and the portfolio’s risk-adjusted return. By calculating the Sharpe Ratio and considering the investor’s risk aversion, we can pinpoint the asset allocation that provides the highest utility.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Two fund managers, Anya and Ben, are presenting their portfolio performances to a board of trustees. Anya manages Portfolio X, which generated a return of 12% with a standard deviation of 15%. Ben manages Portfolio Y, which generated a return of 10% with a standard deviation of 10%. The risk-free rate is 2%, and the market return is 10%. Portfolio X has a beta of 1.2, while Portfolio Y has a beta of 0.8. The fund is governed by UK regulations and must adhere to CISI’s code of conduct. Based on these metrics, the board wants to understand which portfolio performed better on a risk-adjusted basis, considering Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio. Which of the following statements accurately compares the risk-adjusted performance of Portfolio X and Portfolio Y?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as the difference between the portfolio’s return and the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark, adjusted for risk. It quantifies the value added by the fund manager’s skill. Beta measures a portfolio’s systematic risk or volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates that the portfolio’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 suggests that the portfolio is more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. Treynor Ratio is a risk-adjusted performance measure that uses beta as the measure of risk. It is calculated as the portfolio’s return less the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s beta. The Treynor Ratio is useful for evaluating portfolios that are well-diversified, as it focuses on systematic risk. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio for Portfolio X and compare them to Portfolio Y. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Standard Deviation Alpha = Portfolio Return – (CAPM Expected Return) where CAPM Expected Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) Beta = Covariance(Portfolio Return, Market Return) / Variance(Market Return) Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Beta For Portfolio X: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.667 Beta = 1.2 CAPM Expected Return = 2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%) = 11.6% Alpha = 12% – 11.6% = 0.4% Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 1.2 = 8.33% For Portfolio Y: Sharpe Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 10% = 0.8 Beta = 0.8 CAPM Expected Return = 2% + 0.8 * (10% – 2%) = 8.4% Alpha = 10% – 8.4% = 1.6% Treynor Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 0.8 = 10% Comparison: Sharpe Ratio: Portfolio Y (0.8) > Portfolio X (0.667) Alpha: Portfolio Y (1.6%) > Portfolio X (0.4%) Beta: Portfolio X (1.2) > Portfolio Y (0.8) Treynor Ratio: Portfolio Y (10%) > Portfolio X (8.33%) Portfolio Y has a higher Sharpe Ratio, indicating better risk-adjusted returns. Portfolio Y also has a higher Alpha, indicating better performance relative to its risk level. Portfolio X has a higher Beta, meaning it is more volatile compared to the market. Portfolio Y has a higher Treynor Ratio, which indicates a better return for each unit of systematic risk.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as the difference between the portfolio’s return and the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark, adjusted for risk. It quantifies the value added by the fund manager’s skill. Beta measures a portfolio’s systematic risk or volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates that the portfolio’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 suggests that the portfolio is more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. Treynor Ratio is a risk-adjusted performance measure that uses beta as the measure of risk. It is calculated as the portfolio’s return less the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s beta. The Treynor Ratio is useful for evaluating portfolios that are well-diversified, as it focuses on systematic risk. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio for Portfolio X and compare them to Portfolio Y. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Standard Deviation Alpha = Portfolio Return – (CAPM Expected Return) where CAPM Expected Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) Beta = Covariance(Portfolio Return, Market Return) / Variance(Market Return) Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Beta For Portfolio X: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.667 Beta = 1.2 CAPM Expected Return = 2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%) = 11.6% Alpha = 12% – 11.6% = 0.4% Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 1.2 = 8.33% For Portfolio Y: Sharpe Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 10% = 0.8 Beta = 0.8 CAPM Expected Return = 2% + 0.8 * (10% – 2%) = 8.4% Alpha = 10% – 8.4% = 1.6% Treynor Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 0.8 = 10% Comparison: Sharpe Ratio: Portfolio Y (0.8) > Portfolio X (0.667) Alpha: Portfolio Y (1.6%) > Portfolio X (0.4%) Beta: Portfolio X (1.2) > Portfolio Y (0.8) Treynor Ratio: Portfolio Y (10%) > Portfolio X (8.33%) Portfolio Y has a higher Sharpe Ratio, indicating better risk-adjusted returns. Portfolio Y also has a higher Alpha, indicating better performance relative to its risk level. Portfolio X has a higher Beta, meaning it is more volatile compared to the market. Portfolio Y has a higher Treynor Ratio, which indicates a better return for each unit of systematic risk.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
A risk-averse investor in the UK is evaluating four different fund management portfolios (A, B, C, and D) to align with their investment objectives. The investor prioritizes risk-adjusted returns and seeks a portfolio that offers the best balance between return and risk. The risk-free rate is currently 2%. The following data is available for each portfolio: Portfolio A: Return = 15%, Standard Deviation = 10%, Beta = 1.2 Portfolio B: Return = 12%, Standard Deviation = 7%, Beta = 0.8 Portfolio C: Return = 10%, Standard Deviation = 5%, Beta = 0.6 Portfolio D: Return = 18%, Standard Deviation = 13%, Beta = 1.4 Considering the investor’s risk aversion and the available data, which portfolio should the investor choose to maximize risk-adjusted returns? You must use Sharpe Ratio, Alpha and Treynor Ratio to compare the portfolios.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is received for each unit of total risk taken. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. A positive alpha suggests the investment has outperformed its benchmark, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Beta measures the volatility of an investment relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the investment moves in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility and a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. The formula is: Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. It indicates how much excess return is received for each unit of systematic risk taken. In this scenario, we need to calculate each of these metrics to determine which portfolio aligns with the investor’s preferences. Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 10% = 1.3. Alpha = 15% – (2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%)) = 3.4%. Treynor Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 1.2 = 10.83%. Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 7% = 1.43. Alpha = 12% – (2% + 0.8 * (10% – 2%)) = 3.6%. Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 0.8 = 12.5%. Portfolio C: Sharpe Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 5% = 1.6. Alpha = 10% – (2% + 0.6 * (10% – 2%)) = 3.2%. Treynor Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 0.6 = 13.33%. Portfolio D: Sharpe Ratio = (18% – 2%) / 13% = 1.23. Alpha = 18% – (2% + 1.4 * (10% – 2%)) = 4.8%. Treynor Ratio = (18% – 2%) / 1.4 = 11.43%. Given the investor’s risk aversion, a higher Sharpe Ratio and Treynor Ratio are desirable. Portfolio C has the highest Sharpe Ratio (1.6) and Treynor Ratio (13.33%), indicating the best risk-adjusted performance. Although Portfolio D has the highest absolute return (18%) and alpha (4.8%), its higher standard deviation (13%) and beta (1.4) make it less appealing for a risk-averse investor. The investor is willing to sacrifice some absolute return to achieve a better risk-adjusted return, making Portfolio C the most suitable choice. Portfolio B offers a good balance, but Portfolio C’s superior risk-adjusted metrics make it the optimal selection.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is received for each unit of total risk taken. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. A positive alpha suggests the investment has outperformed its benchmark, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Beta measures the volatility of an investment relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the investment moves in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility and a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. The formula is: Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. It indicates how much excess return is received for each unit of systematic risk taken. In this scenario, we need to calculate each of these metrics to determine which portfolio aligns with the investor’s preferences. Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 10% = 1.3. Alpha = 15% – (2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%)) = 3.4%. Treynor Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 1.2 = 10.83%. Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 7% = 1.43. Alpha = 12% – (2% + 0.8 * (10% – 2%)) = 3.6%. Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 0.8 = 12.5%. Portfolio C: Sharpe Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 5% = 1.6. Alpha = 10% – (2% + 0.6 * (10% – 2%)) = 3.2%. Treynor Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 0.6 = 13.33%. Portfolio D: Sharpe Ratio = (18% – 2%) / 13% = 1.23. Alpha = 18% – (2% + 1.4 * (10% – 2%)) = 4.8%. Treynor Ratio = (18% – 2%) / 1.4 = 11.43%. Given the investor’s risk aversion, a higher Sharpe Ratio and Treynor Ratio are desirable. Portfolio C has the highest Sharpe Ratio (1.6) and Treynor Ratio (13.33%), indicating the best risk-adjusted performance. Although Portfolio D has the highest absolute return (18%) and alpha (4.8%), its higher standard deviation (13%) and beta (1.4) make it less appealing for a risk-averse investor. The investor is willing to sacrifice some absolute return to achieve a better risk-adjusted return, making Portfolio C the most suitable choice. Portfolio B offers a good balance, but Portfolio C’s superior risk-adjusted metrics make it the optimal selection.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
A fund manager in London constructs a portfolio consisting of 60% equities and 40% bonds. The equities have an expected return of 12% and a standard deviation of 15%. The bonds have an expected return of 5% and a standard deviation of 7%. The correlation between the equities and bonds is 0.30. The risk-free rate is 2%. Calculate the Sharpe Ratio of this portfolio. Which of the following statements best interprets the calculated Sharpe Ratio in the context of UK fund management regulations and client suitability?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is received for each unit of total risk taken. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. First, calculate the portfolio return: Portfolio Return = (Weight of Equity * Equity Return) + (Weight of Bonds * Bond Return) Portfolio Return = (0.60 * 0.12) + (0.40 * 0.05) = 0.072 + 0.02 = 0.09 or 9% Next, calculate the portfolio standard deviation: Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{(Weight_{Equity}^2 * StandardDeviation_{Equity}^2) + (Weight_{Bonds}^2 * StandardDeviation_{Bonds}^2) + 2 * Weight_{Equity} * Weight_{Bonds} * Correlation * StandardDeviation_{Equity} * StandardDeviation_{Bonds})}\) Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{((0.60)^2 * (0.15)^2) + ((0.40)^2 * (0.07)^2) + (2 * 0.60 * 0.40 * 0.30 * 0.15 * 0.07))}\) Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{(0.36 * 0.0225) + (0.16 * 0.0049) + (0.00378)}\) Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.0081 + 0.000784 + 0.00378}\) Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.012664}\) ≈ 0.1125 or 11.25% Finally, calculate the Sharpe Ratio: Sharpe Ratio = (0.09 – 0.02) / 0.1125 = 0.07 / 0.1125 ≈ 0.622 The Sharpe Ratio is a critical tool for fund managers, especially in the UK regulatory environment governed by the FCA. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Consider two funds: Fund A with a Sharpe Ratio of 0.8 and Fund B with a Sharpe Ratio of 0.5. Even if Fund A has a slightly lower absolute return, its superior Sharpe Ratio suggests it delivers better returns relative to the risk taken, making it potentially more attractive to risk-averse investors. Furthermore, under MiFID II regulations, firms must provide clients with clear and understandable information about investment risks, and the Sharpe Ratio is a valuable metric for fulfilling this obligation. Imagine a scenario where a fund manager pitches two investment strategies to a client with a moderate risk profile. One strategy offers a higher potential return but also has a significantly higher standard deviation, resulting in a lower Sharpe Ratio. By presenting the Sharpe Ratios of both strategies, the fund manager can help the client make an informed decision that aligns with their risk tolerance, satisfying the ‘best interests of the client’ rule. The Sharpe ratio helps to compare portfolios with different risk/return profile.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is received for each unit of total risk taken. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. First, calculate the portfolio return: Portfolio Return = (Weight of Equity * Equity Return) + (Weight of Bonds * Bond Return) Portfolio Return = (0.60 * 0.12) + (0.40 * 0.05) = 0.072 + 0.02 = 0.09 or 9% Next, calculate the portfolio standard deviation: Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{(Weight_{Equity}^2 * StandardDeviation_{Equity}^2) + (Weight_{Bonds}^2 * StandardDeviation_{Bonds}^2) + 2 * Weight_{Equity} * Weight_{Bonds} * Correlation * StandardDeviation_{Equity} * StandardDeviation_{Bonds})}\) Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{((0.60)^2 * (0.15)^2) + ((0.40)^2 * (0.07)^2) + (2 * 0.60 * 0.40 * 0.30 * 0.15 * 0.07))}\) Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{(0.36 * 0.0225) + (0.16 * 0.0049) + (0.00378)}\) Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.0081 + 0.000784 + 0.00378}\) Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.012664}\) ≈ 0.1125 or 11.25% Finally, calculate the Sharpe Ratio: Sharpe Ratio = (0.09 – 0.02) / 0.1125 = 0.07 / 0.1125 ≈ 0.622 The Sharpe Ratio is a critical tool for fund managers, especially in the UK regulatory environment governed by the FCA. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Consider two funds: Fund A with a Sharpe Ratio of 0.8 and Fund B with a Sharpe Ratio of 0.5. Even if Fund A has a slightly lower absolute return, its superior Sharpe Ratio suggests it delivers better returns relative to the risk taken, making it potentially more attractive to risk-averse investors. Furthermore, under MiFID II regulations, firms must provide clients with clear and understandable information about investment risks, and the Sharpe Ratio is a valuable metric for fulfilling this obligation. Imagine a scenario where a fund manager pitches two investment strategies to a client with a moderate risk profile. One strategy offers a higher potential return but also has a significantly higher standard deviation, resulting in a lower Sharpe Ratio. By presenting the Sharpe Ratios of both strategies, the fund manager can help the client make an informed decision that aligns with their risk tolerance, satisfying the ‘best interests of the client’ rule. The Sharpe ratio helps to compare portfolios with different risk/return profile.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
A fund manager, Amelia, oversees a portfolio with an expected return of 12% and a standard deviation of 15%. The risk-free rate is 2%. Amelia is considering leveraging the portfolio to enhance returns. She plans to use a leverage ratio of 1.5x, borrowing funds at the risk-free rate. Her colleague, Ben, argues that leveraging will significantly improve the Sharpe Ratio, making the portfolio more attractive to investors. However, Amelia is concerned about the impact of increased volatility and the cost of borrowing. Assuming the borrowed funds are used to invest in the same portfolio and the cost of borrowing is the risk-free rate, what will be the Sharpe Ratio of the leveraged portfolio, and how does it compare to the unleveraged portfolio’s Sharpe Ratio? Assume all calculations are based on annual figures.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as the excess return (portfolio return minus the risk-free rate) divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where: * \(R_p\) = Portfolio Return * \(R_f\) = Risk-Free Rate * \(\sigma_p\) = Portfolio Standard Deviation In this scenario, we need to consider the impact of leverage on the Sharpe Ratio. Leverage magnifies both returns and risk (standard deviation). First, calculate the unleveraged Sharpe Ratio: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio}_{\text{unleveraged}} = \frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.15} = \frac{0.10}{0.15} = 0.6667 \] Now, consider the leveraged portfolio. The portfolio is leveraged 1.5x, meaning the expected return is multiplied by 1.5, and the standard deviation is also multiplied by 1.5. Leveraged Portfolio Return: \(0.12 \times 1.5 = 0.18\) Leveraged Portfolio Standard Deviation: \(0.15 \times 1.5 = 0.225\) With leverage, the risk-free rate also needs to be considered in proportion to the borrowed amount. If the portfolio is leveraged 1.5x, it means 50% of the portfolio is funded by borrowing. Therefore, the effective risk-free rate for the leveraged portfolio is: \[ R_f^{\text{leveraged}} = R_f \times \text{Leverage Ratio} = 0.02 \times 1.5 = 0.03 \] However, the return on the borrowed funds is 0, so we need to consider the cost of borrowing. The excess return is leveraged, but the cost of borrowing is based on the risk-free rate. The adjusted return is: Leveraged Return = (1.5 * Portfolio Return) – (0.5 * Risk-Free Rate) = (1.5 * 0.12) – (0.5 * 0.02) = 0.18 – 0.01 = 0.17 Now, calculate the Sharpe Ratio for the leveraged portfolio: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio}_{\text{leveraged}} = \frac{0.17 – 0.02}{0.225} = \frac{0.15}{0.225} = 0.6667 \] The Sharpe Ratio remains unchanged because leverage increases both the return and the risk proportionally, assuming the cost of borrowing is the risk-free rate. This is a unique scenario because it tests understanding of how leverage impacts risk-adjusted returns and the importance of considering the cost of borrowing. A common mistake is to simply multiply the Sharpe Ratio by the leverage factor, which is incorrect. The Sharpe Ratio stays constant when using risk-free rate borrowing, which is a crucial concept in fund management.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as the excess return (portfolio return minus the risk-free rate) divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where: * \(R_p\) = Portfolio Return * \(R_f\) = Risk-Free Rate * \(\sigma_p\) = Portfolio Standard Deviation In this scenario, we need to consider the impact of leverage on the Sharpe Ratio. Leverage magnifies both returns and risk (standard deviation). First, calculate the unleveraged Sharpe Ratio: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio}_{\text{unleveraged}} = \frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.15} = \frac{0.10}{0.15} = 0.6667 \] Now, consider the leveraged portfolio. The portfolio is leveraged 1.5x, meaning the expected return is multiplied by 1.5, and the standard deviation is also multiplied by 1.5. Leveraged Portfolio Return: \(0.12 \times 1.5 = 0.18\) Leveraged Portfolio Standard Deviation: \(0.15 \times 1.5 = 0.225\) With leverage, the risk-free rate also needs to be considered in proportion to the borrowed amount. If the portfolio is leveraged 1.5x, it means 50% of the portfolio is funded by borrowing. Therefore, the effective risk-free rate for the leveraged portfolio is: \[ R_f^{\text{leveraged}} = R_f \times \text{Leverage Ratio} = 0.02 \times 1.5 = 0.03 \] However, the return on the borrowed funds is 0, so we need to consider the cost of borrowing. The excess return is leveraged, but the cost of borrowing is based on the risk-free rate. The adjusted return is: Leveraged Return = (1.5 * Portfolio Return) – (0.5 * Risk-Free Rate) = (1.5 * 0.12) – (0.5 * 0.02) = 0.18 – 0.01 = 0.17 Now, calculate the Sharpe Ratio for the leveraged portfolio: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio}_{\text{leveraged}} = \frac{0.17 – 0.02}{0.225} = \frac{0.15}{0.225} = 0.6667 \] The Sharpe Ratio remains unchanged because leverage increases both the return and the risk proportionally, assuming the cost of borrowing is the risk-free rate. This is a unique scenario because it tests understanding of how leverage impacts risk-adjusted returns and the importance of considering the cost of borrowing. A common mistake is to simply multiply the Sharpe Ratio by the leverage factor, which is incorrect. The Sharpe Ratio stays constant when using risk-free rate borrowing, which is a crucial concept in fund management.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider two fund managers, Anya and Ben, managing equity portfolios with different risk profiles. Anya’s portfolio, designed for aggressive growth, returned 15% last year with a standard deviation of 10% and a beta of 1.2. Ben’s portfolio, targeting more conservative growth, returned 12% with a standard deviation of 8% and a beta of 0.9. The risk-free rate during the year was 3%. Assume the market return was 10%. Analyze their performance using the Sharpe Ratio, Treynor Ratio, and Alpha. Based on these metrics, which portfolio demonstrates superior risk-adjusted performance, and why? Assume an investor is choosing between Anya and Ben. Provide a comprehensive justification based on the calculated ratios and alpha values, considering the investor’s preference for risk-adjusted returns and systematic risk exposure. Note that higher Sharpe Ratio, Treynor Ratio, and Alpha indicate better risk-adjusted performance.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk (beta). It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. It measures the value added by the portfolio manager. A positive alpha suggests the manager has outperformed the benchmark. In this scenario, we have Portfolio A with a return of 15%, a standard deviation of 10%, and a beta of 1.2. Portfolio B has a return of 12%, a standard deviation of 8%, and a beta of 0.9. The risk-free rate is 3%. Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio A = (15% – 3%) / 10% = 1.2 Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio B = (12% – 3%) / 8% = 1.125 Treynor Ratio for Portfolio A = (15% – 3%) / 1.2 = 10% Treynor Ratio for Portfolio B = (12% – 3%) / 0.9 = 10% Alpha for Portfolio A: We need to use the CAPM to determine the expected return. Expected Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate). Let’s assume Market Return is 10%. Expected Return for A = 3% + 1.2 * (10% – 3%) = 11.4%. Alpha for A = 15% – 11.4% = 3.6% Alpha for Portfolio B: Expected Return for B = 3% + 0.9 * (10% – 3%) = 9.3%. Alpha for B = 12% – 9.3% = 2.7% Portfolio A has a higher Sharpe Ratio (1.2 vs 1.125) and a higher Alpha (3.6% vs 2.7%). The Treynor Ratios are the same (10%). Therefore, Portfolio A has superior risk-adjusted performance.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk (beta). It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. It measures the value added by the portfolio manager. A positive alpha suggests the manager has outperformed the benchmark. In this scenario, we have Portfolio A with a return of 15%, a standard deviation of 10%, and a beta of 1.2. Portfolio B has a return of 12%, a standard deviation of 8%, and a beta of 0.9. The risk-free rate is 3%. Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio A = (15% – 3%) / 10% = 1.2 Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio B = (12% – 3%) / 8% = 1.125 Treynor Ratio for Portfolio A = (15% – 3%) / 1.2 = 10% Treynor Ratio for Portfolio B = (12% – 3%) / 0.9 = 10% Alpha for Portfolio A: We need to use the CAPM to determine the expected return. Expected Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate). Let’s assume Market Return is 10%. Expected Return for A = 3% + 1.2 * (10% – 3%) = 11.4%. Alpha for A = 15% – 11.4% = 3.6% Alpha for Portfolio B: Expected Return for B = 3% + 0.9 * (10% – 3%) = 9.3%. Alpha for B = 12% – 9.3% = 2.7% Portfolio A has a higher Sharpe Ratio (1.2 vs 1.125) and a higher Alpha (3.6% vs 2.7%). The Treynor Ratios are the same (10%). Therefore, Portfolio A has superior risk-adjusted performance.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Two fund managers, Amelia and Ben, are presenting their fund performance to a board of trustees. Amelia manages Fund A, which generated a return of 12% with a standard deviation of 15% and a beta of 1.2. Ben manages Fund B, which generated a return of 15% with a standard deviation of 20% and a beta of 0.8. The risk-free rate is 2%. The board wants to understand which fund performed better on a risk-adjusted basis and which fund delivered superior excess returns relative to its systematic risk. Considering the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio, which of the following statements accurately compares the performance of Fund A and Fund B?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha measures the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. Beta measures the volatility of an investment relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the investment’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates the investment is more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates the investment is less volatile than the market. Treynor Ratio is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. It measures the excess return per unit of systematic risk. In this scenario, we need to calculate each ratio for both Fund A and Fund B to determine which fund performed better based on each metric. For Fund A: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.6667 Alpha = 12% – (2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%)) = 12% – (2% + 9.6%) = 0.4% Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 1.2 = 8.33% For Fund B: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 20% = 0.65 Alpha = 15% – (2% + 0.8 * (10% – 2%)) = 15% – (2% + 6.4%) = 6.6% Treynor Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 0.8 = 16.25% Based on these calculations: Fund A has a higher Sharpe Ratio (0.6667) compared to Fund B (0.65). Fund B has a higher Alpha (6.6%) compared to Fund A (0.4%). Fund B has a higher Treynor Ratio (16.25%) compared to Fund A (8.33%). Therefore, the fund with the higher Sharpe ratio is Fund A, and the funds with the higher Alpha and Treynor ratios are Fund B.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha measures the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. Beta measures the volatility of an investment relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the investment’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates the investment is more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates the investment is less volatile than the market. Treynor Ratio is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. It measures the excess return per unit of systematic risk. In this scenario, we need to calculate each ratio for both Fund A and Fund B to determine which fund performed better based on each metric. For Fund A: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.6667 Alpha = 12% – (2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%)) = 12% – (2% + 9.6%) = 0.4% Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 1.2 = 8.33% For Fund B: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 20% = 0.65 Alpha = 15% – (2% + 0.8 * (10% – 2%)) = 15% – (2% + 6.4%) = 6.6% Treynor Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 0.8 = 16.25% Based on these calculations: Fund A has a higher Sharpe Ratio (0.6667) compared to Fund B (0.65). Fund B has a higher Alpha (6.6%) compared to Fund A (0.4%). Fund B has a higher Treynor Ratio (16.25%) compared to Fund A (8.33%). Therefore, the fund with the higher Sharpe ratio is Fund A, and the funds with the higher Alpha and Treynor ratios are Fund B.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
A high-net-worth individual, Ms. Eleanor Vance, approaches your fund management firm seeking advice on structuring a long-term investment strategy to provide both a fixed income stream for the next decade and a perpetual income thereafter. Ms. Vance desires to receive £25,000 per year for the next 10 years to fund her philanthropic activities. After this period, she wants to establish a perpetual endowment that will distribute £10,000 annually to a local arts organization. Your firm estimates the appropriate discount rate for these cash flows to be 8% per annum, reflecting the risk profile of the proposed investments. Considering the time value of money, what is the present value of Ms. Vance’s desired investment structure?
Correct
To solve this problem, we need to calculate the present value of the annuity and the perpetuity, then sum them. The present value of an annuity is calculated using the formula: \(PV_{annuity} = PMT \times \frac{1 – (1 + r)^{-n}}{r}\), where PMT is the payment amount, r is the discount rate, and n is the number of periods. The present value of a perpetuity is calculated using the formula: \(PV_{perpetuity} = \frac{PMT}{r}\). In this case, the annuity has a payment of £25,000 per year for 10 years, and the discount rate is 8%. Therefore, the present value of the annuity is: \[ PV_{annuity} = 25000 \times \frac{1 – (1 + 0.08)^{-10}}{0.08} = 25000 \times \frac{1 – (1.08)^{-10}}{0.08} \approx 25000 \times 6.7101 \approx 167752.50 \] The perpetuity starts after 10 years, so we need to discount the present value of the perpetuity back to today. The perpetuity has a payment of £10,000 per year, and the discount rate is 8%. The present value of the perpetuity at the end of year 10 is: \[ PV_{perpetuity} = \frac{10000}{0.08} = 125000 \] Now, we need to discount this back 10 years to today: \[ PV_{perpetuity(today)} = \frac{125000}{(1 + 0.08)^{10}} = \frac{125000}{(1.08)^{10}} \approx \frac{125000}{2.1589} \approx 57909.03 \] The total present value is the sum of the present value of the annuity and the present value of the perpetuity: \[ Total\ PV = 167752.50 + 57909.03 = 225661.53 \] Therefore, the closest answer is £225,661.53. This calculation showcases how a fund manager would assess the value of a complex income stream combining an annuity and a perpetuity. Understanding these calculations is vital for making informed investment decisions, particularly when evaluating assets with varying cash flow structures. For instance, a pension fund manager might use similar techniques to determine the present value of future pension liabilities, considering both fixed-term payments and perpetual benefits. This approach also emphasizes the importance of discounting future cash flows to account for the time value of money, a core principle in investment management.
Incorrect
To solve this problem, we need to calculate the present value of the annuity and the perpetuity, then sum them. The present value of an annuity is calculated using the formula: \(PV_{annuity} = PMT \times \frac{1 – (1 + r)^{-n}}{r}\), where PMT is the payment amount, r is the discount rate, and n is the number of periods. The present value of a perpetuity is calculated using the formula: \(PV_{perpetuity} = \frac{PMT}{r}\). In this case, the annuity has a payment of £25,000 per year for 10 years, and the discount rate is 8%. Therefore, the present value of the annuity is: \[ PV_{annuity} = 25000 \times \frac{1 – (1 + 0.08)^{-10}}{0.08} = 25000 \times \frac{1 – (1.08)^{-10}}{0.08} \approx 25000 \times 6.7101 \approx 167752.50 \] The perpetuity starts after 10 years, so we need to discount the present value of the perpetuity back to today. The perpetuity has a payment of £10,000 per year, and the discount rate is 8%. The present value of the perpetuity at the end of year 10 is: \[ PV_{perpetuity} = \frac{10000}{0.08} = 125000 \] Now, we need to discount this back 10 years to today: \[ PV_{perpetuity(today)} = \frac{125000}{(1 + 0.08)^{10}} = \frac{125000}{(1.08)^{10}} \approx \frac{125000}{2.1589} \approx 57909.03 \] The total present value is the sum of the present value of the annuity and the present value of the perpetuity: \[ Total\ PV = 167752.50 + 57909.03 = 225661.53 \] Therefore, the closest answer is £225,661.53. This calculation showcases how a fund manager would assess the value of a complex income stream combining an annuity and a perpetuity. Understanding these calculations is vital for making informed investment decisions, particularly when evaluating assets with varying cash flow structures. For instance, a pension fund manager might use similar techniques to determine the present value of future pension liabilities, considering both fixed-term payments and perpetual benefits. This approach also emphasizes the importance of discounting future cash flows to account for the time value of money, a core principle in investment management.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
A fund manager in London is constructing a portfolio benchmarked against the FTSE 100. The current yield on UK Gilts is 3%, and the fund manager anticipates the FTSE 100 to return 10% over the next year. The portfolio has a beta of 1.2. Given this information, and using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), what is the expected rate of return for this portfolio? Consider that the fund operates under the regulatory oversight of the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) and must adhere to principles of fair, clear, and not misleading communication regarding expected returns.
Correct
To determine the expected rate of return using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), we use the formula: Expected Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate). In this scenario, the risk-free rate is the yield on UK Gilts (3%), the market return is represented by the FTSE 100’s expected return (10%), and the portfolio’s beta is 1.2. Therefore, the calculation is: Expected Return = 3% + 1.2 * (10% – 3%) = 3% + 1.2 * 7% = 3% + 8.4% = 11.4%. The CAPM model provides a theoretical framework for assessing the risk-return relationship of an investment. Beta measures the systematic risk, or the volatility of an asset relative to the overall market. A beta of 1.2 indicates that the portfolio is expected to be 20% more volatile than the FTSE 100. The market risk premium (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) represents the additional return investors expect for taking on the risk of investing in the market rather than a risk-free asset. The risk-free rate, often represented by government bonds, is the theoretical rate of return of an investment with zero risk. In the UK context, Gilts are commonly used as a proxy for the risk-free rate. It’s important to remember that CAPM is a model and relies on several assumptions, such as efficient markets and rational investors, which may not always hold true in reality. Furthermore, the model only considers systematic risk, ignoring unsystematic risk, which can be diversified away. Factors like company-specific news, regulatory changes, or sector-specific trends are not directly accounted for in the CAPM. Therefore, while CAPM provides a useful starting point, it should be used in conjunction with other analysis methods to make informed investment decisions.
Incorrect
To determine the expected rate of return using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), we use the formula: Expected Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate). In this scenario, the risk-free rate is the yield on UK Gilts (3%), the market return is represented by the FTSE 100’s expected return (10%), and the portfolio’s beta is 1.2. Therefore, the calculation is: Expected Return = 3% + 1.2 * (10% – 3%) = 3% + 1.2 * 7% = 3% + 8.4% = 11.4%. The CAPM model provides a theoretical framework for assessing the risk-return relationship of an investment. Beta measures the systematic risk, or the volatility of an asset relative to the overall market. A beta of 1.2 indicates that the portfolio is expected to be 20% more volatile than the FTSE 100. The market risk premium (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) represents the additional return investors expect for taking on the risk of investing in the market rather than a risk-free asset. The risk-free rate, often represented by government bonds, is the theoretical rate of return of an investment with zero risk. In the UK context, Gilts are commonly used as a proxy for the risk-free rate. It’s important to remember that CAPM is a model and relies on several assumptions, such as efficient markets and rational investors, which may not always hold true in reality. Furthermore, the model only considers systematic risk, ignoring unsystematic risk, which can be diversified away. Factors like company-specific news, regulatory changes, or sector-specific trends are not directly accounted for in the CAPM. Therefore, while CAPM provides a useful starting point, it should be used in conjunction with other analysis methods to make informed investment decisions.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Two fund managers, A and B, are being evaluated based on their performance over the past year. Manager A generated a return of 12% with a standard deviation of 15%, while Manager B achieved a return of 15% with a standard deviation of 20%. The risk-free rate is 2%, and the market return was 10%. Manager A’s portfolio has a beta of 0.8, and Manager B’s portfolio has a beta of 1.2. Considering both the Sharpe Ratio and Jensen’s Alpha, which fund manager demonstrated better risk-adjusted performance, and what are the implications for an investor choosing between these two managers? Assume the investor is primarily concerned with maximizing risk-adjusted returns and operates under UK regulatory standards.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It calculates the excess return per unit of total risk. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Rp – Rf) / σp, where Rp is the portfolio return, Rf is the risk-free rate, and σp is the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio relative to its benchmark. A positive alpha indicates that the portfolio has outperformed its benchmark, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Jensen’s Alpha is calculated as: Alpha = Rp – [Rf + β(Rm – Rf)], where Rp is the portfolio return, Rf is the risk-free rate, β is the portfolio beta, and Rm is the market return. In this scenario, we need to calculate both the Sharpe Ratio and Jensen’s Alpha to determine which fund manager performed better on a risk-adjusted basis. First, we calculate the Sharpe Ratio for each fund manager. For Manager A: (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.667. For Manager B: (15% – 2%) / 20% = 0.65. Manager A has a slightly higher Sharpe Ratio. Next, we calculate Jensen’s Alpha for each fund manager. For Manager A: 12% – [2% + 0.8(10% – 2%)] = 12% – [2% + 6.4%] = 3.6%. For Manager B: 15% – [2% + 1.2(10% – 2%)] = 15% – [2% + 9.6%] = 3.4%. Manager A also has a slightly higher Jensen’s Alpha. The fund manager with the higher Sharpe Ratio and Jensen’s Alpha has demonstrated superior risk-adjusted performance. In this case, Manager A has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.667 and an Alpha of 3.6%, while Manager B has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.65 and an Alpha of 3.4%. Therefore, Manager A outperformed Manager B on a risk-adjusted basis. This analysis highlights the importance of considering both total risk (Sharpe Ratio) and systematic risk (Jensen’s Alpha) when evaluating fund manager performance. A fund manager might achieve higher returns, but if they take on excessive risk, their risk-adjusted performance may be inferior to a manager with slightly lower returns but better risk control.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It calculates the excess return per unit of total risk. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Rp – Rf) / σp, where Rp is the portfolio return, Rf is the risk-free rate, and σp is the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio relative to its benchmark. A positive alpha indicates that the portfolio has outperformed its benchmark, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Jensen’s Alpha is calculated as: Alpha = Rp – [Rf + β(Rm – Rf)], where Rp is the portfolio return, Rf is the risk-free rate, β is the portfolio beta, and Rm is the market return. In this scenario, we need to calculate both the Sharpe Ratio and Jensen’s Alpha to determine which fund manager performed better on a risk-adjusted basis. First, we calculate the Sharpe Ratio for each fund manager. For Manager A: (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.667. For Manager B: (15% – 2%) / 20% = 0.65. Manager A has a slightly higher Sharpe Ratio. Next, we calculate Jensen’s Alpha for each fund manager. For Manager A: 12% – [2% + 0.8(10% – 2%)] = 12% – [2% + 6.4%] = 3.6%. For Manager B: 15% – [2% + 1.2(10% – 2%)] = 15% – [2% + 9.6%] = 3.4%. Manager A also has a slightly higher Jensen’s Alpha. The fund manager with the higher Sharpe Ratio and Jensen’s Alpha has demonstrated superior risk-adjusted performance. In this case, Manager A has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.667 and an Alpha of 3.6%, while Manager B has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.65 and an Alpha of 3.4%. Therefore, Manager A outperformed Manager B on a risk-adjusted basis. This analysis highlights the importance of considering both total risk (Sharpe Ratio) and systematic risk (Jensen’s Alpha) when evaluating fund manager performance. A fund manager might achieve higher returns, but if they take on excessive risk, their risk-adjusted performance may be inferior to a manager with slightly lower returns but better risk control.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Two fund managers, Amelia and Ben, are presenting their portfolio performance to a potential client, Ms. Davies. Amelia manages Portfolio X, which generated a return of 12% with a standard deviation of 15%. Ben manages Portfolio Y, which generated a return of 10% with a standard deviation of 10%. The risk-free rate is 2%, and the benchmark return is 8%. Portfolio X has a beta of 1.2, while Portfolio Y has a beta of 0.8. Ms. Davies is primarily concerned with risk-adjusted returns and the ability of the portfolio to outperform its benchmark. Based on the Sharpe Ratio and Alpha, which portfolio would be more suitable for Ms. Davies, and why?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It quantifies how much excess return an investor receives for the extra volatility they endure for holding a riskier asset. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. It is a measure of how well an investment has performed after adjusting for the risk it took. Alpha is calculated as: Portfolio Return – (Beta * Benchmark Return). Beta measures the volatility of an investment relative to the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates that the investment is more volatile than the market, while a beta less than 1 indicates that it is less volatile. A beta of 1 means the investment’s price will move with the market. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio and Alpha for Portfolio X and then compare them to Portfolio Y. Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio X: (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.667 Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio Y: (10% – 2%) / 10% = 0.8 Alpha for Portfolio X: 12% – (1.2 * 8%) = 2.4% Alpha for Portfolio Y: 10% – (0.8 * 8%) = 3.6% Therefore, Portfolio Y has a higher Sharpe Ratio (0.8 > 0.667) and a higher Alpha (3.6% > 2.4%) than Portfolio X. This means Portfolio Y provided better risk-adjusted returns and outperformed its benchmark by a larger margin than Portfolio X. A fund manager seeking superior risk-adjusted performance and benchmark outperformance would generally prefer Portfolio Y.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It quantifies how much excess return an investor receives for the extra volatility they endure for holding a riskier asset. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. It is a measure of how well an investment has performed after adjusting for the risk it took. Alpha is calculated as: Portfolio Return – (Beta * Benchmark Return). Beta measures the volatility of an investment relative to the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates that the investment is more volatile than the market, while a beta less than 1 indicates that it is less volatile. A beta of 1 means the investment’s price will move with the market. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio and Alpha for Portfolio X and then compare them to Portfolio Y. Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio X: (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.667 Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio Y: (10% – 2%) / 10% = 0.8 Alpha for Portfolio X: 12% – (1.2 * 8%) = 2.4% Alpha for Portfolio Y: 10% – (0.8 * 8%) = 3.6% Therefore, Portfolio Y has a higher Sharpe Ratio (0.8 > 0.667) and a higher Alpha (3.6% > 2.4%) than Portfolio X. This means Portfolio Y provided better risk-adjusted returns and outperformed its benchmark by a larger margin than Portfolio X. A fund manager seeking superior risk-adjusted performance and benchmark outperformance would generally prefer Portfolio Y.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
A fund manager, overseeing four distinct portfolios (A, B, C, and D), is evaluating their performance over the past year. Portfolio A exhibits a Sharpe Ratio of 1.2, an alpha of 3%, and a beta of 0.8. Portfolio B presents a Sharpe Ratio of 0.9, an alpha of -1%, and a beta of 1.1. Portfolio C demonstrates a Sharpe Ratio of 1.5, an alpha of 2%, and a beta of 1.0. Portfolio D shows a Sharpe Ratio of 1.0, an alpha of 0%, and a beta of 0.9. Considering these metrics, and assuming the fund manager’s primary objective is to maximize risk-adjusted returns while achieving positive alpha, which portfolio most effectively meets these criteria? Assume that the fund manager is UK based and follows all CISI regulations.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is received for each unit of total risk taken. It is calculated as: \[Sharpe\ Ratio = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\] where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha measures the portfolio’s excess return relative to its benchmark index. A positive alpha indicates outperformance, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Beta measures the portfolio’s sensitivity to market movements. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market, a beta greater than 1 indicates higher volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. Treynor Ratio is calculated as: \[Treynor\ Ratio = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\beta_p}\] where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\beta_p\) is the portfolio’s beta. The Treynor Ratio measures the excess return earned per unit of systematic risk. In this scenario, Portfolio A has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.2, indicating good risk-adjusted returns. Its alpha is 3%, suggesting it outperformed its benchmark by 3%. The beta is 0.8, meaning it is less volatile than the market. Portfolio B has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.9, indicating lower risk-adjusted returns compared to Portfolio A. Its alpha is -1%, suggesting it underperformed its benchmark by 1%. The beta is 1.1, indicating it is more volatile than the market. Portfolio C has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.5, indicating higher risk-adjusted returns compared to both Portfolio A and Portfolio B. Its alpha is 2%, suggesting it outperformed its benchmark by 2%. The beta is 1.0, meaning it moves in line with the market. Portfolio D has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.0, indicating moderate risk-adjusted returns. Its alpha is 0%, suggesting it performed in line with its benchmark. The beta is 0.9, meaning it is slightly less volatile than the market. Based on these metrics, Portfolio C demonstrates the best risk-adjusted performance, as indicated by its highest Sharpe Ratio of 1.5. Additionally, it has a positive alpha of 2% and a beta of 1.0, meaning it outperformed its benchmark while moving in line with the market. Portfolio A, despite having a positive alpha, has a lower Sharpe Ratio than Portfolio C. Portfolio B has a negative alpha and a Sharpe Ratio below 1. Portfolio D has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.0 and an alpha of 0%, indicating it performed in line with its benchmark.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is received for each unit of total risk taken. It is calculated as: \[Sharpe\ Ratio = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\] where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha measures the portfolio’s excess return relative to its benchmark index. A positive alpha indicates outperformance, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Beta measures the portfolio’s sensitivity to market movements. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market, a beta greater than 1 indicates higher volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. Treynor Ratio is calculated as: \[Treynor\ Ratio = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\beta_p}\] where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\beta_p\) is the portfolio’s beta. The Treynor Ratio measures the excess return earned per unit of systematic risk. In this scenario, Portfolio A has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.2, indicating good risk-adjusted returns. Its alpha is 3%, suggesting it outperformed its benchmark by 3%. The beta is 0.8, meaning it is less volatile than the market. Portfolio B has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.9, indicating lower risk-adjusted returns compared to Portfolio A. Its alpha is -1%, suggesting it underperformed its benchmark by 1%. The beta is 1.1, indicating it is more volatile than the market. Portfolio C has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.5, indicating higher risk-adjusted returns compared to both Portfolio A and Portfolio B. Its alpha is 2%, suggesting it outperformed its benchmark by 2%. The beta is 1.0, meaning it moves in line with the market. Portfolio D has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.0, indicating moderate risk-adjusted returns. Its alpha is 0%, suggesting it performed in line with its benchmark. The beta is 0.9, meaning it is slightly less volatile than the market. Based on these metrics, Portfolio C demonstrates the best risk-adjusted performance, as indicated by its highest Sharpe Ratio of 1.5. Additionally, it has a positive alpha of 2% and a beta of 1.0, meaning it outperformed its benchmark while moving in line with the market. Portfolio A, despite having a positive alpha, has a lower Sharpe Ratio than Portfolio C. Portfolio B has a negative alpha and a Sharpe Ratio below 1. Portfolio D has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.0 and an alpha of 0%, indicating it performed in line with its benchmark.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Two fund managers, Amelia and Ben, are presenting their fund performance to a group of potential investors. Amelia manages Fund A, which has delivered an annual return of 12% with a standard deviation of 15%. Ben manages Fund B, which has delivered an annual return of 18% with a standard deviation of 25%. The risk-free rate is 2%, and the market return is 10%. Fund A has a beta of 0.8, while Fund B has a beta of 1.2. The investors are keen to understand which fund has performed better on a risk-adjusted basis and are particularly interested in the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio. Based on the provided information, which of the following statements accurately compares the risk-adjusted performance metrics of Fund A and Fund B?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as the difference between the portfolio’s return and the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index, adjusted for risk. Beta measures the systematic risk of a portfolio relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio’s price will move with the market; a beta greater than 1 indicates more volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates less volatility. The Treynor Ratio is another measure of risk-adjusted return, similar to the Sharpe Ratio, but uses beta as the measure of risk instead of standard deviation. It’s calculated as the portfolio’s return less the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s beta. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio for Fund A and Fund B. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Standard Deviation Alpha = Portfolio Return – (CAPM Return) where CAPM Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Beta For Fund A: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.67 CAPM Return = 2% + 0.8 * (10% – 2%) = 8.4% Alpha = 12% – 8.4% = 3.6% Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 0.8 = 12.5% For Fund B: Sharpe Ratio = (18% – 2%) / 25% = 0.64 CAPM Return = 2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%) = 11.6% Alpha = 18% – 11.6% = 6.4% Treynor Ratio = (18% – 2%) / 1.2 = 13.33% Based on these calculations: Fund A: Sharpe Ratio = 0.67, Alpha = 3.6%, Beta = 0.8, Treynor Ratio = 12.5% Fund B: Sharpe Ratio = 0.64, Alpha = 6.4%, Beta = 1.2, Treynor Ratio = 13.33%
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as the difference between the portfolio’s return and the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index, adjusted for risk. Beta measures the systematic risk of a portfolio relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio’s price will move with the market; a beta greater than 1 indicates more volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates less volatility. The Treynor Ratio is another measure of risk-adjusted return, similar to the Sharpe Ratio, but uses beta as the measure of risk instead of standard deviation. It’s calculated as the portfolio’s return less the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s beta. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio for Fund A and Fund B. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Standard Deviation Alpha = Portfolio Return – (CAPM Return) where CAPM Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Beta For Fund A: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.67 CAPM Return = 2% + 0.8 * (10% – 2%) = 8.4% Alpha = 12% – 8.4% = 3.6% Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 0.8 = 12.5% For Fund B: Sharpe Ratio = (18% – 2%) / 25% = 0.64 CAPM Return = 2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%) = 11.6% Alpha = 18% – 11.6% = 6.4% Treynor Ratio = (18% – 2%) / 1.2 = 13.33% Based on these calculations: Fund A: Sharpe Ratio = 0.67, Alpha = 3.6%, Beta = 0.8, Treynor Ratio = 12.5% Fund B: Sharpe Ratio = 0.64, Alpha = 6.4%, Beta = 1.2, Treynor Ratio = 13.33%
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
A fund manager, Amelia, manages a diversified portfolio with an expected return of 12% and a standard deviation of 15%. The current risk-free rate is 3%. Amelia is considering implementing a hedging strategy using derivatives to mitigate potential downside risk during anticipated market volatility. This strategy is projected to reduce the portfolio’s standard deviation by 20%, but it will also lower the expected return by 10% due to the cost of implementing and maintaining the hedge. Considering these changes, what is the impact on the portfolio’s Sharpe Ratio? Show all calculations and reasoning.
Correct
To determine the impact on the Sharpe Ratio, we first need to calculate the initial Sharpe Ratio and then the Sharpe Ratio after the changes. Initial Sharpe Ratio: The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where: \( R_p \) = Portfolio Return = 12% = 0.12 \( R_f \) = Risk-Free Rate = 3% = 0.03 \( \sigma_p \) = Portfolio Standard Deviation = 15% = 0.15 Initial Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.12 – 0.03}{0.15} = \frac{0.09}{0.15} = 0.6\) Now, let’s consider the changes. The portfolio manager implements a hedging strategy that reduces the portfolio’s standard deviation by 20% but also lowers the expected return by 10%. New Standard Deviation: New \( \sigma_p \) = Initial \( \sigma_p \) * (1 – Reduction Percentage) New \( \sigma_p \) = 0.15 * (1 – 0.20) = 0.15 * 0.80 = 0.12 New Portfolio Return: New \( R_p \) = Initial \( R_p \) * (1 – Reduction Percentage) New \( R_p \) = 0.12 * (1 – 0.10) = 0.12 * 0.90 = 0.108 New Sharpe Ratio: New Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.108 – 0.03}{0.12} = \frac{0.078}{0.12} = 0.65\) Impact on Sharpe Ratio: The Sharpe Ratio increased from 0.6 to 0.65. Therefore, the Sharpe Ratio increased by 0.05. Analogy and Elaboration: Imagine you are a fruit vendor deciding whether to buy insurance for your fruit stand. Initially, your stand generates a 12% profit annually, with fluctuations (risk) of 15% due to weather and market changes. The risk-free rate (like putting money in a very safe bank account) is 3%. Your initial Sharpe Ratio is 0.6, indicating how much extra return you’re getting for each unit of risk you take. Now, you buy insurance (a hedging strategy). This insurance reduces the fluctuations in your profit by 20%, meaning your standard deviation drops to 12%. However, the insurance costs you 10% of your potential profit, reducing your return to 10.8%. Your new Sharpe Ratio is 0.65. Even though your profit is lower, the reduced risk improves your Sharpe Ratio. This means you are now getting more “bang for your buck” in terms of risk-adjusted return. The increase in the Sharpe Ratio from 0.6 to 0.65 illustrates that the hedging strategy improved the portfolio’s risk-adjusted performance, making it more attractive to investors seeking an optimal balance between risk and return. This approach focuses on applying a real-world analogy to illustrate the quantitative impact on the Sharpe Ratio, highlighting its practical relevance.
Incorrect
To determine the impact on the Sharpe Ratio, we first need to calculate the initial Sharpe Ratio and then the Sharpe Ratio after the changes. Initial Sharpe Ratio: The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where: \( R_p \) = Portfolio Return = 12% = 0.12 \( R_f \) = Risk-Free Rate = 3% = 0.03 \( \sigma_p \) = Portfolio Standard Deviation = 15% = 0.15 Initial Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.12 – 0.03}{0.15} = \frac{0.09}{0.15} = 0.6\) Now, let’s consider the changes. The portfolio manager implements a hedging strategy that reduces the portfolio’s standard deviation by 20% but also lowers the expected return by 10%. New Standard Deviation: New \( \sigma_p \) = Initial \( \sigma_p \) * (1 – Reduction Percentage) New \( \sigma_p \) = 0.15 * (1 – 0.20) = 0.15 * 0.80 = 0.12 New Portfolio Return: New \( R_p \) = Initial \( R_p \) * (1 – Reduction Percentage) New \( R_p \) = 0.12 * (1 – 0.10) = 0.12 * 0.90 = 0.108 New Sharpe Ratio: New Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.108 – 0.03}{0.12} = \frac{0.078}{0.12} = 0.65\) Impact on Sharpe Ratio: The Sharpe Ratio increased from 0.6 to 0.65. Therefore, the Sharpe Ratio increased by 0.05. Analogy and Elaboration: Imagine you are a fruit vendor deciding whether to buy insurance for your fruit stand. Initially, your stand generates a 12% profit annually, with fluctuations (risk) of 15% due to weather and market changes. The risk-free rate (like putting money in a very safe bank account) is 3%. Your initial Sharpe Ratio is 0.6, indicating how much extra return you’re getting for each unit of risk you take. Now, you buy insurance (a hedging strategy). This insurance reduces the fluctuations in your profit by 20%, meaning your standard deviation drops to 12%. However, the insurance costs you 10% of your potential profit, reducing your return to 10.8%. Your new Sharpe Ratio is 0.65. Even though your profit is lower, the reduced risk improves your Sharpe Ratio. This means you are now getting more “bang for your buck” in terms of risk-adjusted return. The increase in the Sharpe Ratio from 0.6 to 0.65 illustrates that the hedging strategy improved the portfolio’s risk-adjusted performance, making it more attractive to investors seeking an optimal balance between risk and return. This approach focuses on applying a real-world analogy to illustrate the quantitative impact on the Sharpe Ratio, highlighting its practical relevance.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
A fund manager, Amelia Stone, oversees a UK-based equity portfolio. The portfolio generated a return of 15% last year. The risk-free rate, represented by UK Gilts, was 3%. The portfolio’s standard deviation was 12%, its beta was 0.8, and its alpha was 4%. Amelia is evaluating the risk-adjusted performance of her portfolio using various metrics to report to her clients, who are primarily UK-based pension funds and high-net-worth individuals. She needs to determine which measure indicates the most favorable risk-adjusted performance relative to the risk taken, considering the regulatory requirements under MiFID II regarding transparent and comprehensive performance reporting. Given this scenario, which of the following statements best describes the risk-adjusted performance of Amelia’s portfolio based on the Sharpe Ratio, Treynor Ratio, and Alpha, and what does it imply for her client reporting?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is received for each unit of total risk taken. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark, considering the risk-adjusted performance. A positive alpha suggests outperformance. Beta measures a portfolio’s systematic risk or volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility. The Treynor Ratio evaluates risk-adjusted return using beta as the measure of risk. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. In this scenario, we’re given the portfolio’s return, risk-free rate, standard deviation, beta, and alpha. We need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio and Treynor Ratio to determine which measure indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation = (15% – 3%) / 12% = 12% / 12% = 1.0 Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta = (15% – 3%) / 0.8 = 12% / 0.8 = 0.15 or 15% The Sharpe Ratio is 1.0, while the Treynor Ratio is 0.15. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance when considering total risk (standard deviation). A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance when considering systematic risk (beta). In this case, the Sharpe Ratio of 1.0 suggests a more favorable risk-adjusted return than the Treynor Ratio of 0.15. This implies that considering total risk, the portfolio’s performance is better than when only considering systematic risk. Alpha is already given, and it’s a measure of excess return above the benchmark.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is received for each unit of total risk taken. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark, considering the risk-adjusted performance. A positive alpha suggests outperformance. Beta measures a portfolio’s systematic risk or volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility. The Treynor Ratio evaluates risk-adjusted return using beta as the measure of risk. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. In this scenario, we’re given the portfolio’s return, risk-free rate, standard deviation, beta, and alpha. We need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio and Treynor Ratio to determine which measure indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation = (15% – 3%) / 12% = 12% / 12% = 1.0 Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta = (15% – 3%) / 0.8 = 12% / 0.8 = 0.15 or 15% The Sharpe Ratio is 1.0, while the Treynor Ratio is 0.15. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance when considering total risk (standard deviation). A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance when considering systematic risk (beta). In this case, the Sharpe Ratio of 1.0 suggests a more favorable risk-adjusted return than the Treynor Ratio of 0.15. This implies that considering total risk, the portfolio’s performance is better than when only considering systematic risk. Alpha is already given, and it’s a measure of excess return above the benchmark.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
A fund manager at “Caledonian Investments” is constructing a portfolio for a client with a moderate risk tolerance. The portfolio consists of 40% allocation to Equity Fund A and 60% allocation to Fixed Income Fund B. Equity Fund A has an expected return of 12% and a standard deviation of 15%. Fixed Income Fund B has an expected return of 6% and a standard deviation of 7%. The correlation coefficient between Equity Fund A and Fixed Income Fund B is 0.3. The current risk-free rate is 2%. Based on this information, calculate the Sharpe Ratio of the portfolio. Show all calculations. Assume no transaction costs or taxes. Which of the following is the closest to the portfolio’s Sharpe Ratio?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It quantifies how much excess return an investment generates for each unit of total risk it takes. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. First, we need to calculate the portfolio return. The portfolio consists of 40% Equity Fund A and 60% Fixed Income Fund B. Portfolio Return = (Weight of Equity Fund A * Return of Equity Fund A) + (Weight of Fixed Income Fund B * Return of Fixed Income Fund B) Portfolio Return = (0.40 * 12%) + (0.60 * 6%) = 4.8% + 3.6% = 8.4% Next, we calculate the portfolio standard deviation. We’ll use the formula for the standard deviation of a two-asset portfolio: Portfolio Standard Deviation = \[\sqrt{(w_A^2 * \sigma_A^2) + (w_B^2 * \sigma_B^2) + (2 * w_A * w_B * \rho_{AB} * \sigma_A * \sigma_B)}\] Where: \(w_A\) = Weight of Equity Fund A = 0.40 \(w_B\) = Weight of Fixed Income Fund B = 0.60 \(\sigma_A\) = Standard Deviation of Equity Fund A = 15% = 0.15 \(\sigma_B\) = Standard Deviation of Fixed Income Fund B = 7% = 0.07 \(\rho_{AB}\) = Correlation between Equity Fund A and Fixed Income Fund B = 0.3 Portfolio Standard Deviation = \[\sqrt{(0.40^2 * 0.15^2) + (0.60^2 * 0.07^2) + (2 * 0.40 * 0.60 * 0.3 * 0.15 * 0.07)}\] Portfolio Standard Deviation = \[\sqrt{(0.16 * 0.0225) + (0.36 * 0.0049) + (0.00378)}\] Portfolio Standard Deviation = \[\sqrt{0.0036 + 0.001764 + 0.00378}\] Portfolio Standard Deviation = \[\sqrt{0.009144}\] Portfolio Standard Deviation = 0.09562 or 9.562% Now we can calculate the Sharpe Ratio: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation Sharpe Ratio = (8.4% – 2%) / 9.562% Sharpe Ratio = 6.4% / 9.562% Sharpe Ratio = 0.6693 Therefore, the Sharpe Ratio of the portfolio is approximately 0.67. This Sharpe Ratio indicates the portfolio’s risk-adjusted return. A Sharpe Ratio of 0.67 suggests that for every unit of risk (measured by standard deviation) the portfolio takes, it generates 0.67 units of excess return above the risk-free rate. This ratio is a critical tool for fund managers in assessing the efficiency of their investment strategies. It allows them to compare the performance of different portfolios, even if they have different levels of risk. For instance, a fund manager might use the Sharpe Ratio to decide whether to allocate more capital to a higher-risk equity fund or a lower-risk fixed income fund. The Sharpe Ratio helps ensure that the additional return gained from a riskier investment justifies the increased volatility. The Sharpe Ratio, while widely used, has limitations. It assumes that returns are normally distributed, which isn’t always the case in real-world markets. Furthermore, it penalizes both upside and downside volatility equally, which may not align with all investors’ preferences.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It quantifies how much excess return an investment generates for each unit of total risk it takes. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. First, we need to calculate the portfolio return. The portfolio consists of 40% Equity Fund A and 60% Fixed Income Fund B. Portfolio Return = (Weight of Equity Fund A * Return of Equity Fund A) + (Weight of Fixed Income Fund B * Return of Fixed Income Fund B) Portfolio Return = (0.40 * 12%) + (0.60 * 6%) = 4.8% + 3.6% = 8.4% Next, we calculate the portfolio standard deviation. We’ll use the formula for the standard deviation of a two-asset portfolio: Portfolio Standard Deviation = \[\sqrt{(w_A^2 * \sigma_A^2) + (w_B^2 * \sigma_B^2) + (2 * w_A * w_B * \rho_{AB} * \sigma_A * \sigma_B)}\] Where: \(w_A\) = Weight of Equity Fund A = 0.40 \(w_B\) = Weight of Fixed Income Fund B = 0.60 \(\sigma_A\) = Standard Deviation of Equity Fund A = 15% = 0.15 \(\sigma_B\) = Standard Deviation of Fixed Income Fund B = 7% = 0.07 \(\rho_{AB}\) = Correlation between Equity Fund A and Fixed Income Fund B = 0.3 Portfolio Standard Deviation = \[\sqrt{(0.40^2 * 0.15^2) + (0.60^2 * 0.07^2) + (2 * 0.40 * 0.60 * 0.3 * 0.15 * 0.07)}\] Portfolio Standard Deviation = \[\sqrt{(0.16 * 0.0225) + (0.36 * 0.0049) + (0.00378)}\] Portfolio Standard Deviation = \[\sqrt{0.0036 + 0.001764 + 0.00378}\] Portfolio Standard Deviation = \[\sqrt{0.009144}\] Portfolio Standard Deviation = 0.09562 or 9.562% Now we can calculate the Sharpe Ratio: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation Sharpe Ratio = (8.4% – 2%) / 9.562% Sharpe Ratio = 6.4% / 9.562% Sharpe Ratio = 0.6693 Therefore, the Sharpe Ratio of the portfolio is approximately 0.67. This Sharpe Ratio indicates the portfolio’s risk-adjusted return. A Sharpe Ratio of 0.67 suggests that for every unit of risk (measured by standard deviation) the portfolio takes, it generates 0.67 units of excess return above the risk-free rate. This ratio is a critical tool for fund managers in assessing the efficiency of their investment strategies. It allows them to compare the performance of different portfolios, even if they have different levels of risk. For instance, a fund manager might use the Sharpe Ratio to decide whether to allocate more capital to a higher-risk equity fund or a lower-risk fixed income fund. The Sharpe Ratio helps ensure that the additional return gained from a riskier investment justifies the increased volatility. The Sharpe Ratio, while widely used, has limitations. It assumes that returns are normally distributed, which isn’t always the case in real-world markets. Furthermore, it penalizes both upside and downside volatility equally, which may not align with all investors’ preferences.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
An investment firm, “Global Dynamics,” is evaluating four fund managers (A, B, C, and D) for a new global equity portfolio. The firm uses Sharpe Ratio, Treynor Ratio, Alpha, and Beta to assess performance. The risk-free rate is 2%, and the market return is 8%. After reviewing the past three years’ performance, the following data has been compiled: Fund Manager A achieved an average portfolio return of 14% with a standard deviation of 10% and a beta of 1.2. Fund Manager B reported an average portfolio return of 12% with a standard deviation of 8% and a beta of 0.8. Fund Manager C generated an average portfolio return of 16% with a standard deviation of 14% and a beta of 1.5. Fund Manager D attained an average portfolio return of 10% with a standard deviation of 6% and a beta of 0.6. Considering the Sharpe Ratio, Treynor Ratio, Alpha, and Beta, which fund manager would be the most suitable choice for Global Dynamics, assuming the firm prioritizes the highest risk-adjusted return and positive alpha?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk (beta). It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. Alpha measures the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index, adjusted for risk. It represents the portfolio manager’s skill in generating returns above what would be expected based on the portfolio’s beta. Beta measures the systematic risk of a portfolio relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates the portfolio is more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates the portfolio is less volatile. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Treynor Ratio, Alpha, and Beta to determine the most suitable fund manager. Fund Manager A: Sharpe Ratio = (14% – 2%) / 10% = 1.2 Treynor Ratio = (14% – 2%) / 1.2 = 10% Alpha = 14% – (2% + 1.2 * (8% – 2%)) = 14% – (2% + 7.2%) = 4.8% Beta = 1.2 Fund Manager B: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 8% = 1.25 Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 0.8 = 12.5% Alpha = 12% – (2% + 0.8 * (8% – 2%)) = 12% – (2% + 4.8%) = 5.2% Beta = 0.8 Fund Manager C: Sharpe Ratio = (16% – 2%) / 14% = 1 Treynor Ratio = (16% – 2%) / 1.5 = 9.33% Alpha = 16% – (2% + 1.5 * (8% – 2%)) = 16% – (2% + 9%) = 5% Beta = 1.5 Fund Manager D: Sharpe Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 6% = 1.33 Treynor Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 0.6 = 13.33% Alpha = 10% – (2% + 0.6 * (8% – 2%)) = 10% – (2% + 3.6%) = 4.4% Beta = 0.6 Based on these calculations, Fund Manager D has the highest Sharpe Ratio (1.33) and Treynor Ratio (13.33%), indicating the best risk-adjusted performance. Fund Manager B has the highest Alpha (5.2%). While Alpha is important, the Sharpe and Treynor ratios consider both risk and return, making Fund Manager D the most suitable choice based on these metrics. Fund Manager A has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.2, Treynor Ratio of 10%, Alpha of 4.8%, and Beta of 1.2. Fund Manager B has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.25, Treynor Ratio of 12.5%, Alpha of 5.2%, and Beta of 0.8. Fund Manager C has a Sharpe Ratio of 1, Treynor Ratio of 9.33%, Alpha of 5%, and Beta of 1.5. Fund Manager D has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.33, Treynor Ratio of 13.33%, Alpha of 4.4%, and Beta of 0.6. Therefore, Fund Manager D is the most suitable.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk (beta). It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. Alpha measures the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index, adjusted for risk. It represents the portfolio manager’s skill in generating returns above what would be expected based on the portfolio’s beta. Beta measures the systematic risk of a portfolio relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates the portfolio is more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates the portfolio is less volatile. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Treynor Ratio, Alpha, and Beta to determine the most suitable fund manager. Fund Manager A: Sharpe Ratio = (14% – 2%) / 10% = 1.2 Treynor Ratio = (14% – 2%) / 1.2 = 10% Alpha = 14% – (2% + 1.2 * (8% – 2%)) = 14% – (2% + 7.2%) = 4.8% Beta = 1.2 Fund Manager B: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 8% = 1.25 Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 0.8 = 12.5% Alpha = 12% – (2% + 0.8 * (8% – 2%)) = 12% – (2% + 4.8%) = 5.2% Beta = 0.8 Fund Manager C: Sharpe Ratio = (16% – 2%) / 14% = 1 Treynor Ratio = (16% – 2%) / 1.5 = 9.33% Alpha = 16% – (2% + 1.5 * (8% – 2%)) = 16% – (2% + 9%) = 5% Beta = 1.5 Fund Manager D: Sharpe Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 6% = 1.33 Treynor Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 0.6 = 13.33% Alpha = 10% – (2% + 0.6 * (8% – 2%)) = 10% – (2% + 3.6%) = 4.4% Beta = 0.6 Based on these calculations, Fund Manager D has the highest Sharpe Ratio (1.33) and Treynor Ratio (13.33%), indicating the best risk-adjusted performance. Fund Manager B has the highest Alpha (5.2%). While Alpha is important, the Sharpe and Treynor ratios consider both risk and return, making Fund Manager D the most suitable choice based on these metrics. Fund Manager A has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.2, Treynor Ratio of 10%, Alpha of 4.8%, and Beta of 1.2. Fund Manager B has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.25, Treynor Ratio of 12.5%, Alpha of 5.2%, and Beta of 0.8. Fund Manager C has a Sharpe Ratio of 1, Treynor Ratio of 9.33%, Alpha of 5%, and Beta of 1.5. Fund Manager D has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.33, Treynor Ratio of 13.33%, Alpha of 4.4%, and Beta of 0.6. Therefore, Fund Manager D is the most suitable.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
A fund manager, Sarah, is evaluating the performance of Fund X, a UK-based equity fund, over the past year. Fund X achieved a return of 15%. The risk-free rate, represented by the yield on UK government bonds, was 3%. The fund’s standard deviation was 12%, and its beta was 0.8. The market return, as measured by the FTSE 100 index, was 14%. Sarah needs to determine which performance measure – Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, or Treynor Ratio – most strongly indicates Fund X’s superior risk-adjusted returns compared to its peers. Consider that the fund operates under FCA regulations and aims to provide long-term capital appreciation while adhering to ethical investment principles. Based on the calculated performance measures, which statement best reflects the interpretation of Fund X’s risk-adjusted performance?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is earned per unit of total risk. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio relative to its benchmark, adjusted for risk (beta). A positive alpha suggests the portfolio has outperformed its benchmark, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using systematic risk (beta) instead of total risk (standard deviation). It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio for Fund X and then compare them to determine which performance measure suggests superior risk-adjusted returns. 1. **Sharpe Ratio Calculation:** * Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation * Fund X Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 3%) / 12% = 12% / 12% = 1.0 2. **Alpha Calculation:** * Alpha = Portfolio Return – (Beta * Market Return) – (1 – Beta) * Risk-Free Rate * Fund X Alpha = 15% – (0.8 * 14%) – (1 – 0.8) * 3% = 15% – 11.2% – 0.6% = 3.2% 3. **Treynor Ratio Calculation:** * Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta * Fund X Treynor Ratio = (15% – 3%) / 0.8 = 12% / 0.8 = 0.15 or 15% Comparing these metrics, a higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance using total risk, a positive alpha suggests outperformance relative to the benchmark, and a higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. In this case, the Sharpe Ratio of 1.0, Alpha of 3.2%, and Treynor Ratio of 15% provide a comprehensive view of Fund X’s performance. Imagine a fund manager is navigating a forest (the market). The Sharpe Ratio is like a compass showing how efficiently they’re moving forward relative to all obstacles (total risk). Alpha is like a map revealing how much further ahead they are compared to a standard route (benchmark), adjusted for the difficulty of the terrain. The Treynor Ratio is like focusing on how well they’re handling the steepest inclines (systematic risk).
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is earned per unit of total risk. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio relative to its benchmark, adjusted for risk (beta). A positive alpha suggests the portfolio has outperformed its benchmark, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using systematic risk (beta) instead of total risk (standard deviation). It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio for Fund X and then compare them to determine which performance measure suggests superior risk-adjusted returns. 1. **Sharpe Ratio Calculation:** * Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation * Fund X Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 3%) / 12% = 12% / 12% = 1.0 2. **Alpha Calculation:** * Alpha = Portfolio Return – (Beta * Market Return) – (1 – Beta) * Risk-Free Rate * Fund X Alpha = 15% – (0.8 * 14%) – (1 – 0.8) * 3% = 15% – 11.2% – 0.6% = 3.2% 3. **Treynor Ratio Calculation:** * Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta * Fund X Treynor Ratio = (15% – 3%) / 0.8 = 12% / 0.8 = 0.15 or 15% Comparing these metrics, a higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance using total risk, a positive alpha suggests outperformance relative to the benchmark, and a higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. In this case, the Sharpe Ratio of 1.0, Alpha of 3.2%, and Treynor Ratio of 15% provide a comprehensive view of Fund X’s performance. Imagine a fund manager is navigating a forest (the market). The Sharpe Ratio is like a compass showing how efficiently they’re moving forward relative to all obstacles (total risk). Alpha is like a map revealing how much further ahead they are compared to a standard route (benchmark), adjusted for the difficulty of the terrain. The Treynor Ratio is like focusing on how well they’re handling the steepest inclines (systematic risk).
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
A fund manager, Sarah, is evaluating the performance of two investment funds, Fund A and Fund B, over the past year. Fund A has demonstrated a Sharpe Ratio of 1.2, a Treynor Ratio of 15%, and an alpha of 4%. Fund B has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.9, a Treynor Ratio of 12%, and an alpha of 6%. The risk-free rate during this period was 3%. Sarah’s client, Mr. Thompson, is known to be moderately risk-averse. Considering these performance metrics and Mr. Thompson’s risk profile, which fund would be the most suitable recommendation, and what is the primary justification for this recommendation, keeping in mind the FCA’s guidelines on suitability? The funds both invest in UK equities. The funds are compliant with all relevant regulations including MiFID II.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk (beta). It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index or the return predicted by the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). Beta measures the systematic risk or volatility of a security or portfolio compared to the market as a whole. A beta of 1 indicates the asset’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates more volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates less volatility. In this scenario, Fund A has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.2, a Treynor Ratio of 15%, and an alpha of 4%. Fund B has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.9, a Treynor Ratio of 12%, and an alpha of 6%. The risk-free rate is 3%. To determine which fund performed better, we need to consider these metrics in context. Fund A’s higher Sharpe Ratio indicates it provided better risk-adjusted returns overall compared to Fund B. Fund A’s higher Treynor Ratio indicates it provided better risk-adjusted returns relative to systematic risk (beta) compared to Fund B. Fund B’s higher alpha indicates it generated more excess return compared to its benchmark than Fund A. However, since Fund A has higher Sharpe and Treynor ratios, it performed better on a risk-adjusted basis. The client’s risk aversion is a critical factor. If the client is highly risk-averse, the fund with the higher Sharpe and Treynor ratios (Fund A) would be more suitable because it provides better risk-adjusted returns. If the client is less risk-averse and primarily focused on maximizing returns, Fund B with its higher alpha might be considered, but the risk-adjusted measures suggest Fund A is superior.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk (beta). It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index or the return predicted by the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). Beta measures the systematic risk or volatility of a security or portfolio compared to the market as a whole. A beta of 1 indicates the asset’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates more volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates less volatility. In this scenario, Fund A has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.2, a Treynor Ratio of 15%, and an alpha of 4%. Fund B has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.9, a Treynor Ratio of 12%, and an alpha of 6%. The risk-free rate is 3%. To determine which fund performed better, we need to consider these metrics in context. Fund A’s higher Sharpe Ratio indicates it provided better risk-adjusted returns overall compared to Fund B. Fund A’s higher Treynor Ratio indicates it provided better risk-adjusted returns relative to systematic risk (beta) compared to Fund B. Fund B’s higher alpha indicates it generated more excess return compared to its benchmark than Fund A. However, since Fund A has higher Sharpe and Treynor ratios, it performed better on a risk-adjusted basis. The client’s risk aversion is a critical factor. If the client is highly risk-averse, the fund with the higher Sharpe and Treynor ratios (Fund A) would be more suitable because it provides better risk-adjusted returns. If the client is less risk-averse and primarily focused on maximizing returns, Fund B with its higher alpha might be considered, but the risk-adjusted measures suggest Fund A is superior.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A high-net-worth individual, Mr. Sterling, is evaluating two fund managers, Portfolio A and Portfolio B, to manage a portion of his wealth. Mr. Sterling is particularly concerned about minimizing his exposure to overall market risk due to upcoming changes in UK economic policy. He provides you with the following information about the two portfolios: Portfolio A has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.8, an Alpha of 2%, and a Beta of 1.2. Portfolio B has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.0, an Alpha of 1%, and a Beta of 0.8. Based on this information and Mr. Sterling’s specific concern about minimizing market risk exposure, which portfolio would be the MOST suitable for him, and why?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha measures the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark. It represents the portfolio manager’s skill in generating returns above what would be expected given the portfolio’s beta (systematic risk). Beta measures a portfolio’s volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market; a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. The Treynor Ratio is another measure of risk-adjusted return, calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. It assesses the return earned per unit of systematic risk. In this scenario, Portfolio A has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.8, Alpha of 2%, and Beta of 1.2. Portfolio B has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.0, Alpha of 1%, and Beta of 0.8. Portfolio A’s higher alpha suggests better active management skill, but its lower Sharpe Ratio indicates that this return comes at a higher level of total risk (both systematic and unsystematic). Portfolio B has a better risk-adjusted return overall (higher Sharpe Ratio) but lower excess return relative to the benchmark (lower alpha). The higher beta of Portfolio A means that it is more sensitive to market movements than Portfolio B. Given that the investor wants to minimize exposure to overall market risk, the portfolio with the lower beta would be preferable.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha measures the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark. It represents the portfolio manager’s skill in generating returns above what would be expected given the portfolio’s beta (systematic risk). Beta measures a portfolio’s volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market; a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. The Treynor Ratio is another measure of risk-adjusted return, calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. It assesses the return earned per unit of systematic risk. In this scenario, Portfolio A has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.8, Alpha of 2%, and Beta of 1.2. Portfolio B has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.0, Alpha of 1%, and Beta of 0.8. Portfolio A’s higher alpha suggests better active management skill, but its lower Sharpe Ratio indicates that this return comes at a higher level of total risk (both systematic and unsystematic). Portfolio B has a better risk-adjusted return overall (higher Sharpe Ratio) but lower excess return relative to the benchmark (lower alpha). The higher beta of Portfolio A means that it is more sensitive to market movements than Portfolio B. Given that the investor wants to minimize exposure to overall market risk, the portfolio with the lower beta would be preferable.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Three fund managers, A, B, and C, each manage a portfolio with varying risk and return characteristics. The risk-free rate is 3%, and the market return is 10%. The following table summarizes their performance: | Manager | Portfolio Return | Standard Deviation | Beta | Tracking Error | |—|—|—|—|—| | A | 15% | 12% | 1.1 | 5% | | B | 18% | 15% | 1.3 | 7% | | C | 12% | 9% | 0.9 | 3% | Based on this information, and considering the fund’s performance relative to a benchmark index, which fund manager delivered the best risk-adjusted performance, specifically considering their active management skills?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. A positive alpha suggests outperformance, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. The Treynor Ratio is similar to the Sharpe Ratio but uses beta (systematic risk) instead of standard deviation (total risk). It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. Beta measures a portfolio’s sensitivity to market movements. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility than the market. The information ratio is calculated as Alpha / Tracking Error. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Treynor Ratio, and Information Ratio to determine which fund manager performed best. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Standard Deviation Alpha = Portfolio Return – (Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) + Risk Free Rate) Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Beta Information Ratio = Alpha / Tracking Error For Manager A: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 3%) / 12% = 1 Alpha = 15% – (1.1 * (10% – 3%) + 3%) = 15% – (1.1 * 7% + 3%) = 15% – 10.7% = 4.3% Treynor Ratio = (15% – 3%) / 1.1 = 12% / 1.1 = 10.91% Information Ratio = 4.3% / 5% = 0.86 For Manager B: Sharpe Ratio = (18% – 3%) / 15% = 1 Alpha = 18% – (1.3 * (10% – 3%) + 3%) = 18% – (1.3 * 7% + 3%) = 18% – 12.1% = 5.9% Treynor Ratio = (18% – 3%) / 1.3 = 15% / 1.3 = 11.54% Information Ratio = 5.9% / 7% = 0.84 For Manager C: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 9% = 1 Alpha = 12% – (0.9 * (10% – 3%) + 3%) = 12% – (0.9 * 7% + 3%) = 12% – 9.3% = 2.7% Treynor Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 0.9 = 9% / 0.9 = 10% Information Ratio = 2.7% / 3% = 0.9 All managers have the same Sharpe Ratio, which is 1. Manager B has the highest Alpha (5.9%), indicating the highest excess return relative to the risk-adjusted benchmark. Manager B also has the highest Treynor Ratio (11.54%), which measures return per unit of systematic risk (beta). Manager C has the highest information ratio (0.9), indicating the best risk-adjusted return relative to the benchmark, considering the tracking error. The question asks which manager delivered the best risk-adjusted performance relative to a benchmark index. The information ratio is the most appropriate metric for this.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. A positive alpha suggests outperformance, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. The Treynor Ratio is similar to the Sharpe Ratio but uses beta (systematic risk) instead of standard deviation (total risk). It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. Beta measures a portfolio’s sensitivity to market movements. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility than the market. The information ratio is calculated as Alpha / Tracking Error. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Treynor Ratio, and Information Ratio to determine which fund manager performed best. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Standard Deviation Alpha = Portfolio Return – (Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) + Risk Free Rate) Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Beta Information Ratio = Alpha / Tracking Error For Manager A: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 3%) / 12% = 1 Alpha = 15% – (1.1 * (10% – 3%) + 3%) = 15% – (1.1 * 7% + 3%) = 15% – 10.7% = 4.3% Treynor Ratio = (15% – 3%) / 1.1 = 12% / 1.1 = 10.91% Information Ratio = 4.3% / 5% = 0.86 For Manager B: Sharpe Ratio = (18% – 3%) / 15% = 1 Alpha = 18% – (1.3 * (10% – 3%) + 3%) = 18% – (1.3 * 7% + 3%) = 18% – 12.1% = 5.9% Treynor Ratio = (18% – 3%) / 1.3 = 15% / 1.3 = 11.54% Information Ratio = 5.9% / 7% = 0.84 For Manager C: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 9% = 1 Alpha = 12% – (0.9 * (10% – 3%) + 3%) = 12% – (0.9 * 7% + 3%) = 12% – 9.3% = 2.7% Treynor Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 0.9 = 9% / 0.9 = 10% Information Ratio = 2.7% / 3% = 0.9 All managers have the same Sharpe Ratio, which is 1. Manager B has the highest Alpha (5.9%), indicating the highest excess return relative to the risk-adjusted benchmark. Manager B also has the highest Treynor Ratio (11.54%), which measures return per unit of systematic risk (beta). Manager C has the highest information ratio (0.9), indicating the best risk-adjusted return relative to the benchmark, considering the tracking error. The question asks which manager delivered the best risk-adjusted performance relative to a benchmark index. The information ratio is the most appropriate metric for this.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A UK-based fund manager, overseeing a portfolio subject to MiFID II regulations, is evaluating two investment funds for inclusion in a client’s diversified portfolio. Fund A has demonstrated an average annual return of 12% with a standard deviation of 8%. Fund B, focusing on emerging markets, has achieved an average annual return of 15% with a standard deviation of 12%. The current risk-free rate, represented by UK government bonds, is 2%. Considering the client’s risk profile and the regulatory emphasis on best execution and suitability under MiFID II, which fund offers a superior risk-adjusted return based on the Sharpe Ratio, and what does this indicate about the fund’s suitability for the client’s portfolio?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It calculates the excess return per unit of total risk. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where: \( R_p \) = Portfolio Return \( R_f \) = Risk-Free Rate \( \sigma_p \) = Portfolio Standard Deviation In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for both Fund A and Fund B to determine which fund offers a better risk-adjusted return. For Fund A: \( R_p = 12\% \) \( R_f = 2\% \) \( \sigma_p = 8\% \) \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio}_A = \frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.08} = \frac{0.10}{0.08} = 1.25 \] For Fund B: \( R_p = 15\% \) \( R_f = 2\% \) \( \sigma_p = 12\% \) \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio}_B = \frac{0.15 – 0.02}{0.12} = \frac{0.13}{0.12} \approx 1.083 \] Comparing the Sharpe Ratios, Fund A has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.25, while Fund B has a Sharpe Ratio of approximately 1.083. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted return. Therefore, Fund A offers a superior risk-adjusted return compared to Fund B. Now, consider a unique analogy: Imagine two chefs, Chef Anya (Fund A) and Chef Ben (Fund B). Both are trying to create delicious dishes. Chef Anya consistently creates dishes that are well-received (high return) with minimal kitchen mishaps (low volatility), while Chef Ben aims for more ambitious dishes (higher return) but occasionally faces significant kitchen disasters (higher volatility). The Sharpe Ratio helps us determine which chef provides a better “taste experience” per unit of “kitchen chaos.” In this case, Chef Anya’s consistent quality (higher Sharpe Ratio) makes her a better choice despite Chef Ben’s occasional spectacular but risky creations. This analogy highlights that a higher return is not always better; the risk taken to achieve that return must be considered. Another example is a portfolio manager considering two investment strategies. Strategy X promises high returns but involves investing in volatile emerging markets, while Strategy Y offers moderate returns with investments in stable, developed markets. Using the Sharpe Ratio, the manager can objectively assess which strategy provides a better balance between risk and return, aligning with the client’s risk tolerance and investment objectives.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It calculates the excess return per unit of total risk. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where: \( R_p \) = Portfolio Return \( R_f \) = Risk-Free Rate \( \sigma_p \) = Portfolio Standard Deviation In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for both Fund A and Fund B to determine which fund offers a better risk-adjusted return. For Fund A: \( R_p = 12\% \) \( R_f = 2\% \) \( \sigma_p = 8\% \) \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio}_A = \frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.08} = \frac{0.10}{0.08} = 1.25 \] For Fund B: \( R_p = 15\% \) \( R_f = 2\% \) \( \sigma_p = 12\% \) \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio}_B = \frac{0.15 – 0.02}{0.12} = \frac{0.13}{0.12} \approx 1.083 \] Comparing the Sharpe Ratios, Fund A has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.25, while Fund B has a Sharpe Ratio of approximately 1.083. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted return. Therefore, Fund A offers a superior risk-adjusted return compared to Fund B. Now, consider a unique analogy: Imagine two chefs, Chef Anya (Fund A) and Chef Ben (Fund B). Both are trying to create delicious dishes. Chef Anya consistently creates dishes that are well-received (high return) with minimal kitchen mishaps (low volatility), while Chef Ben aims for more ambitious dishes (higher return) but occasionally faces significant kitchen disasters (higher volatility). The Sharpe Ratio helps us determine which chef provides a better “taste experience” per unit of “kitchen chaos.” In this case, Chef Anya’s consistent quality (higher Sharpe Ratio) makes her a better choice despite Chef Ben’s occasional spectacular but risky creations. This analogy highlights that a higher return is not always better; the risk taken to achieve that return must be considered. Another example is a portfolio manager considering two investment strategies. Strategy X promises high returns but involves investing in volatile emerging markets, while Strategy Y offers moderate returns with investments in stable, developed markets. Using the Sharpe Ratio, the manager can objectively assess which strategy provides a better balance between risk and return, aligning with the client’s risk tolerance and investment objectives.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Two fund managers, Amelia and Ben, are presenting their portfolio performance to a prospective client, Ms. Davies. Amelia’s portfolio, Portfolio A, has generated an average annual return of 12% with a standard deviation of 15%. Ben’s portfolio, Portfolio B, has generated an average annual return of 18% with a standard deviation of 25%. The current risk-free rate, based on UK government gilts, is 2%. Ms. Davies is risk-averse and wants to understand which portfolio offers a better risk-adjusted return. Based solely on the Sharpe Ratio, and rounding to four decimal places, what is the difference between the Sharpe Ratio of Amelia’s portfolio and Ben’s portfolio (Amelia’s Sharpe Ratio minus Ben’s Sharpe Ratio)?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It quantifies the excess return per unit of total risk in a portfolio. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for both portfolios and then determine the difference. Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.6667. Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (18% – 2%) / 25% = 0.64. The difference is 0.6667 – 0.64 = 0.0267. The Sharpe Ratio helps investors understand the return of an investment compared to its risk. Imagine two gardeners, Alice and Bob. Alice grows roses with an average height of 12 inches, but the height varies by 15 inches (standard deviation). Bob grows roses with an average height of 18 inches, but the height varies by 25 inches. The “risk-free rate” is the average height of weeds, which is 2 inches. Alice’s roses have a Sharpe Ratio of 0.67, while Bob’s have a Sharpe Ratio of 0.64. Despite Bob’s roses being taller on average, Alice’s roses provide a better height-to-variability ratio. The risk-free rate is the theoretical rate of return of an investment with zero risk. It represents the interest an investor would expect from an absolutely risk-free investment over a specified period of time. In practice, government treasury bills are often used as a proxy for the risk-free rate because they are backed by the government and considered to have a very low risk of default. The Sharpe Ratio is used to evaluate the performance of a portfolio by considering both the return and the risk. It can be used to compare different portfolios or to evaluate the performance of a portfolio manager. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates that the portfolio manager is generating more return for the level of risk taken. However, it’s important to note that the Sharpe Ratio is just one measure of risk-adjusted performance and should be used in conjunction with other measures. It assumes that returns are normally distributed, which may not always be the case.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It quantifies the excess return per unit of total risk in a portfolio. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for both portfolios and then determine the difference. Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.6667. Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (18% – 2%) / 25% = 0.64. The difference is 0.6667 – 0.64 = 0.0267. The Sharpe Ratio helps investors understand the return of an investment compared to its risk. Imagine two gardeners, Alice and Bob. Alice grows roses with an average height of 12 inches, but the height varies by 15 inches (standard deviation). Bob grows roses with an average height of 18 inches, but the height varies by 25 inches. The “risk-free rate” is the average height of weeds, which is 2 inches. Alice’s roses have a Sharpe Ratio of 0.67, while Bob’s have a Sharpe Ratio of 0.64. Despite Bob’s roses being taller on average, Alice’s roses provide a better height-to-variability ratio. The risk-free rate is the theoretical rate of return of an investment with zero risk. It represents the interest an investor would expect from an absolutely risk-free investment over a specified period of time. In practice, government treasury bills are often used as a proxy for the risk-free rate because they are backed by the government and considered to have a very low risk of default. The Sharpe Ratio is used to evaluate the performance of a portfolio by considering both the return and the risk. It can be used to compare different portfolios or to evaluate the performance of a portfolio manager. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates that the portfolio manager is generating more return for the level of risk taken. However, it’s important to note that the Sharpe Ratio is just one measure of risk-adjusted performance and should be used in conjunction with other measures. It assumes that returns are normally distributed, which may not always be the case.