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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
A fund manager, Amelia Stone, manages a portfolio with an expected return of 12%. The portfolio’s standard deviation is 15%. The current risk-free rate, as indicated by UK government bonds, is 2%. Amelia is presenting the portfolio’s performance to a client, Mr. Harrison, who is particularly concerned about downside risk and wants to understand the portfolio’s risk-adjusted return. Mr. Harrison is also considering investing in another fund that claims to have a higher return but hasn’t provided detailed risk metrics. Amelia wants to clearly communicate the portfolio’s risk-adjusted performance using the Sharpe Ratio. Considering Mr. Harrison’s risk aversion and his need for a clear, easily understandable metric, what is the Sharpe Ratio of Amelia’s portfolio, and how should she explain its significance to Mr. Harrison in comparison to other investment options he might be considering?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is earned per unit of total risk. It is calculated as: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. In this scenario, we are given the portfolio return, risk-free rate, and the portfolio’s standard deviation. We can calculate the Sharpe Ratio as follows: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.15} = \frac{0.10}{0.15} = 0.6667 \] Therefore, the Sharpe Ratio for the portfolio is approximately 0.67. To understand the Sharpe Ratio in context, consider two investment strategies. Strategy A has a higher return but also higher volatility, while Strategy B has a lower return but lower volatility. The Sharpe Ratio helps determine which strategy provides a better return for the risk taken. For instance, if Strategy A has a return of 15% and a standard deviation of 20%, with a risk-free rate of 2%, its Sharpe Ratio would be (0.15 – 0.02) / 0.20 = 0.65. If Strategy B has a return of 10% and a standard deviation of 10%, its Sharpe Ratio would be (0.10 – 0.02) / 0.10 = 0.80. Even though Strategy A has a higher return, Strategy B offers a better risk-adjusted return. Another application involves comparing different fund managers. Suppose two fund managers, X and Y, both invest in similar asset classes. Fund Manager X achieves an average return of 14% with a standard deviation of 18%, while Fund Manager Y achieves an average return of 11% with a standard deviation of 12%. Assuming a risk-free rate of 3%, the Sharpe Ratio for Fund Manager X is (0.14 – 0.03) / 0.18 = 0.61, and for Fund Manager Y, it is (0.11 – 0.03) / 0.12 = 0.67. In this case, Fund Manager Y has a better risk-adjusted performance, despite the lower average return. The Sharpe Ratio provides a standardized measure to evaluate and compare investment performance considering the level of risk involved.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is earned per unit of total risk. It is calculated as: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. In this scenario, we are given the portfolio return, risk-free rate, and the portfolio’s standard deviation. We can calculate the Sharpe Ratio as follows: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.15} = \frac{0.10}{0.15} = 0.6667 \] Therefore, the Sharpe Ratio for the portfolio is approximately 0.67. To understand the Sharpe Ratio in context, consider two investment strategies. Strategy A has a higher return but also higher volatility, while Strategy B has a lower return but lower volatility. The Sharpe Ratio helps determine which strategy provides a better return for the risk taken. For instance, if Strategy A has a return of 15% and a standard deviation of 20%, with a risk-free rate of 2%, its Sharpe Ratio would be (0.15 – 0.02) / 0.20 = 0.65. If Strategy B has a return of 10% and a standard deviation of 10%, its Sharpe Ratio would be (0.10 – 0.02) / 0.10 = 0.80. Even though Strategy A has a higher return, Strategy B offers a better risk-adjusted return. Another application involves comparing different fund managers. Suppose two fund managers, X and Y, both invest in similar asset classes. Fund Manager X achieves an average return of 14% with a standard deviation of 18%, while Fund Manager Y achieves an average return of 11% with a standard deviation of 12%. Assuming a risk-free rate of 3%, the Sharpe Ratio for Fund Manager X is (0.14 – 0.03) / 0.18 = 0.61, and for Fund Manager Y, it is (0.11 – 0.03) / 0.12 = 0.67. In this case, Fund Manager Y has a better risk-adjusted performance, despite the lower average return. The Sharpe Ratio provides a standardized measure to evaluate and compare investment performance considering the level of risk involved.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Portfolio Gamma has generated a return of 15% over the past year. During the same period, the risk-free rate was 3%. Portfolio Gamma’s beta is 1.2. An analyst, Amelia Stone, is evaluating Portfolio Gamma’s performance alongside other portfolios managed by her firm. Amelia needs to assess Portfolio Gamma’s risk-adjusted return, specifically accounting for its systematic risk relative to the market. She also wants to compare this portfolio’s performance with other well-diversified portfolios. Considering the information available and the need to focus on systematic risk, what is the Treynor Ratio for Portfolio Gamma, and what does this ratio primarily indicate about the portfolio’s performance in the context of well-diversified portfolios managed by the firm?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark. Beta measures a portfolio’s systematic risk relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Treynor Ratio for Portfolio Gamma. Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta Portfolio Return = 15% = 0.15 Risk-Free Rate = 3% = 0.03 Portfolio Beta = 1.2 Treynor Ratio = (0.15 – 0.03) / 1.2 = 0.12 / 1.2 = 0.1 Therefore, the Treynor Ratio for Portfolio Gamma is 0.1 or 10%. Now, consider two imaginary portfolios, “Stellar Growth” and “Steady Income.” Stellar Growth has a high beta of 1.5, indicating high sensitivity to market movements, and an expected return of 20%. Steady Income, on the other hand, has a low beta of 0.6, suggesting lower sensitivity to market fluctuations, and an expected return of 8%. If the risk-free rate is 2%, we can calculate the Treynor Ratios for both. Stellar Growth’s Treynor Ratio is (20% – 2%) / 1.5 = 12%. Steady Income’s Treynor Ratio is (8% – 2%) / 0.6 = 10%. In this case, Stellar Growth provides a higher risk-adjusted return relative to its systematic risk, despite its higher beta. The Treynor Ratio focuses solely on systematic risk (beta), making it suitable for well-diversified portfolios where unsystematic risk is minimized. However, it doesn’t account for unsystematic risk. The Sharpe Ratio, in contrast, considers total risk (standard deviation), making it more appropriate for portfolios that are not fully diversified.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark. Beta measures a portfolio’s systematic risk relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Treynor Ratio for Portfolio Gamma. Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta Portfolio Return = 15% = 0.15 Risk-Free Rate = 3% = 0.03 Portfolio Beta = 1.2 Treynor Ratio = (0.15 – 0.03) / 1.2 = 0.12 / 1.2 = 0.1 Therefore, the Treynor Ratio for Portfolio Gamma is 0.1 or 10%. Now, consider two imaginary portfolios, “Stellar Growth” and “Steady Income.” Stellar Growth has a high beta of 1.5, indicating high sensitivity to market movements, and an expected return of 20%. Steady Income, on the other hand, has a low beta of 0.6, suggesting lower sensitivity to market fluctuations, and an expected return of 8%. If the risk-free rate is 2%, we can calculate the Treynor Ratios for both. Stellar Growth’s Treynor Ratio is (20% – 2%) / 1.5 = 12%. Steady Income’s Treynor Ratio is (8% – 2%) / 0.6 = 10%. In this case, Stellar Growth provides a higher risk-adjusted return relative to its systematic risk, despite its higher beta. The Treynor Ratio focuses solely on systematic risk (beta), making it suitable for well-diversified portfolios where unsystematic risk is minimized. However, it doesn’t account for unsystematic risk. The Sharpe Ratio, in contrast, considers total risk (standard deviation), making it more appropriate for portfolios that are not fully diversified.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
A fund manager, Ms. Anya Sharma, manages a UK-based equity fund. Over the past year, the fund generated a return of 15%. The risk-free rate, represented by UK Gilts, was 2%. The fund’s standard deviation was 12%, and its beta relative to the FTSE 100 index was 1.2. The FTSE 100 index returned 10% during the same period. Based on these figures, calculate the fund’s Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio, and interpret these values in the context of fund performance evaluation under CISI guidelines. Explain how these metrics collectively inform an investor about the fund’s risk-adjusted performance and its ability to generate excess returns relative to its benchmark, considering the UK market dynamics and regulatory environment. Specifically, elaborate on the implications of a positive alpha in relation to the fund manager’s stock-picking skills and the fund’s adherence to its stated investment strategy, in accordance with CISI ethical standards and performance reporting requirements.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is earned for each unit of total risk (standard deviation). The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Standard Deviation of Portfolio. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha measures the portfolio’s excess return compared to its benchmark, adjusted for risk (beta). A positive alpha suggests the portfolio outperformed its benchmark, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Treynor Ratio assesses risk-adjusted return using systematic risk (beta). The formula is: Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Beta of Portfolio. A higher Treynor Ratio suggests better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. The information ratio is a measure of portfolio returns beyond the returns of a benchmark, compared to the volatility of those returns. In this scenario, we need to calculate Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio to assess the fund’s performance. First, calculate the Sharpe Ratio: (15% – 2%) / 12% = 1.0833. Next, calculate Alpha: 15% – [2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%)] = 15% – (2% + 9.6%) = 3.4%. Finally, calculate the Treynor Ratio: (15% – 2%) / 1.2 = 10.833%. The Sharpe Ratio is 1.0833, Alpha is 3.4%, and the Treynor Ratio is 10.833%. Comparing these values helps assess the fund’s risk-adjusted performance. The Sharpe Ratio shows the excess return per unit of total risk. The Alpha indicates how much the fund outperformed its benchmark, considering its risk (beta). The Treynor Ratio shows the excess return per unit of systematic risk.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is earned for each unit of total risk (standard deviation). The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Standard Deviation of Portfolio. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha measures the portfolio’s excess return compared to its benchmark, adjusted for risk (beta). A positive alpha suggests the portfolio outperformed its benchmark, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Treynor Ratio assesses risk-adjusted return using systematic risk (beta). The formula is: Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Beta of Portfolio. A higher Treynor Ratio suggests better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. The information ratio is a measure of portfolio returns beyond the returns of a benchmark, compared to the volatility of those returns. In this scenario, we need to calculate Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio to assess the fund’s performance. First, calculate the Sharpe Ratio: (15% – 2%) / 12% = 1.0833. Next, calculate Alpha: 15% – [2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%)] = 15% – (2% + 9.6%) = 3.4%. Finally, calculate the Treynor Ratio: (15% – 2%) / 1.2 = 10.833%. The Sharpe Ratio is 1.0833, Alpha is 3.4%, and the Treynor Ratio is 10.833%. Comparing these values helps assess the fund’s risk-adjusted performance. The Sharpe Ratio shows the excess return per unit of total risk. The Alpha indicates how much the fund outperformed its benchmark, considering its risk (beta). The Treynor Ratio shows the excess return per unit of systematic risk.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Two fund managers, Amelia and Ben, are presenting their portfolio performance to a board of trustees for a pension fund. Amelia manages Portfolio A, which has generated a return of 15% with a standard deviation of 11.3% and a beta of 0.75. Ben manages Portfolio B, which has returned 14.5% with a standard deviation of 13.2% and a beta of 1.25. The risk-free rate is 2%, and the market return is 12%. Assume both portfolios are well-diversified. Considering the Sharpe Ratio, Treynor Ratio, alpha, and beta, which portfolio is likely to be deemed the better investment by the board, and what is the justification for this decision based on these metrics?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk (beta). It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance considering only systematic risk. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio relative to its expected return based on its beta and the market return. It measures the value added by the portfolio manager. Beta measures the systematic risk of a portfolio relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates that the portfolio’s price will move in the same direction and magnitude as the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates that the portfolio is more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates that the portfolio is less volatile than the market. In this scenario, Portfolio A has a higher Sharpe Ratio (1.15) than Portfolio B (0.95), indicating better risk-adjusted performance overall. Portfolio A also has a higher Treynor Ratio (0.16) than Portfolio B (0.12), suggesting better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. Portfolio A’s alpha (5%) is higher than Portfolio B’s (2%), indicating that Portfolio A has generated more excess return relative to its expected return. Portfolio A has a lower beta (0.75) than Portfolio B (1.25), indicating that Portfolio A is less volatile than the market, while Portfolio B is more volatile. Based on these metrics, Portfolio A appears to be the better investment option. It offers superior risk-adjusted returns, generates more excess return, and is less volatile than Portfolio B. This aligns with the principles of Modern Portfolio Theory, which emphasizes diversification and optimizing the risk-return tradeoff. Investors typically prefer portfolios with higher Sharpe Ratios, Treynor Ratios, and alpha, and lower beta, all else being equal. Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 11.3% = 1.15 Treynor Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 0.75 = 0.173 Alpha = 15% – (2% + 0.75 * (12% – 2%)) = 5% Sharpe Ratio = (14.5% – 2%) / 13.2% = 0.95 Treynor Ratio = (14.5% – 2%) / 1.25 = 0.10 Alpha = 14.5% – (2% + 1.25 * (12% – 2%)) = 2%
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk (beta). It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance considering only systematic risk. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio relative to its expected return based on its beta and the market return. It measures the value added by the portfolio manager. Beta measures the systematic risk of a portfolio relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates that the portfolio’s price will move in the same direction and magnitude as the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates that the portfolio is more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates that the portfolio is less volatile than the market. In this scenario, Portfolio A has a higher Sharpe Ratio (1.15) than Portfolio B (0.95), indicating better risk-adjusted performance overall. Portfolio A also has a higher Treynor Ratio (0.16) than Portfolio B (0.12), suggesting better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. Portfolio A’s alpha (5%) is higher than Portfolio B’s (2%), indicating that Portfolio A has generated more excess return relative to its expected return. Portfolio A has a lower beta (0.75) than Portfolio B (1.25), indicating that Portfolio A is less volatile than the market, while Portfolio B is more volatile. Based on these metrics, Portfolio A appears to be the better investment option. It offers superior risk-adjusted returns, generates more excess return, and is less volatile than Portfolio B. This aligns with the principles of Modern Portfolio Theory, which emphasizes diversification and optimizing the risk-return tradeoff. Investors typically prefer portfolios with higher Sharpe Ratios, Treynor Ratios, and alpha, and lower beta, all else being equal. Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 11.3% = 1.15 Treynor Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 0.75 = 0.173 Alpha = 15% – (2% + 0.75 * (12% – 2%)) = 5% Sharpe Ratio = (14.5% – 2%) / 13.2% = 0.95 Treynor Ratio = (14.5% – 2%) / 1.25 = 0.10 Alpha = 14.5% – (2% + 1.25 * (12% – 2%)) = 2%
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
A fund manager oversees a UK-based bond portfolio with a modified duration of 7.5 years and a convexity of 90. The portfolio primarily consists of UK Gilts. Unexpectedly, the Bank of England announces an immediate increase in the base interest rate by 0.75% to combat rising inflation. Given the fund’s investment mandate, the manager cannot make immediate adjustments to the portfolio’s composition. Estimate the approximate percentage change in the bond portfolio’s value resulting from this interest rate hike, considering both duration and convexity effects. The fund manager needs to report the estimated impact to the investment committee within the hour, adhering to the CISI’s ethical guidelines for providing accurate and timely information.
Correct
To determine the impact of an unexpected interest rate hike on the value of a bond portfolio, we need to consider the bond’s duration and convexity. Duration measures the sensitivity of a bond’s price to changes in interest rates, while convexity accounts for the non-linear relationship between bond prices and interest rates. A higher duration indicates greater price sensitivity. Convexity helps refine the duration estimate, especially for larger interest rate changes. Given a modified duration of 7.5 years, a convexity of 90, and an interest rate increase of 0.75% (0.0075), we can calculate the approximate percentage change in the bond portfolio’s value. First, calculate the effect of duration: Percentage price change due to duration = – (Modified Duration) * (Change in Interest Rate) Percentage price change due to duration = -7.5 * 0.0075 = -0.05625 or -5.625% Next, calculate the effect of convexity: Percentage price change due to convexity = 0.5 * (Convexity) * (Change in Interest Rate)^2 Percentage price change due to convexity = 0.5 * 90 * (0.0075)^2 = 0.5 * 90 * 0.00005625 = 0.00253125 or 0.253125% Finally, combine the effects of duration and convexity to estimate the total percentage change in the bond portfolio’s value: Total percentage change = Percentage change due to duration + Percentage change due to convexity Total percentage change = -5.625% + 0.253125% = -5.371875% Therefore, the bond portfolio’s value is expected to decrease by approximately 5.37%. This calculation demonstrates how duration and convexity are used together to provide a more accurate estimate of a bond portfolio’s price sensitivity to interest rate changes. Convexity corrects for the curvature in the price-yield relationship that duration alone does not capture.
Incorrect
To determine the impact of an unexpected interest rate hike on the value of a bond portfolio, we need to consider the bond’s duration and convexity. Duration measures the sensitivity of a bond’s price to changes in interest rates, while convexity accounts for the non-linear relationship between bond prices and interest rates. A higher duration indicates greater price sensitivity. Convexity helps refine the duration estimate, especially for larger interest rate changes. Given a modified duration of 7.5 years, a convexity of 90, and an interest rate increase of 0.75% (0.0075), we can calculate the approximate percentage change in the bond portfolio’s value. First, calculate the effect of duration: Percentage price change due to duration = – (Modified Duration) * (Change in Interest Rate) Percentage price change due to duration = -7.5 * 0.0075 = -0.05625 or -5.625% Next, calculate the effect of convexity: Percentage price change due to convexity = 0.5 * (Convexity) * (Change in Interest Rate)^2 Percentage price change due to convexity = 0.5 * 90 * (0.0075)^2 = 0.5 * 90 * 0.00005625 = 0.00253125 or 0.253125% Finally, combine the effects of duration and convexity to estimate the total percentage change in the bond portfolio’s value: Total percentage change = Percentage change due to duration + Percentage change due to convexity Total percentage change = -5.625% + 0.253125% = -5.371875% Therefore, the bond portfolio’s value is expected to decrease by approximately 5.37%. This calculation demonstrates how duration and convexity are used together to provide a more accurate estimate of a bond portfolio’s price sensitivity to interest rate changes. Convexity corrects for the curvature in the price-yield relationship that duration alone does not capture.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
A fund manager is constructing a portfolio using two technology companies, AlphaTech and BetaCorp. AlphaTech has a beta of 1.2, while BetaCorp has a beta of 0.8. The current risk-free rate is 3%, and the expected market return is 8%. The fund manager allocates 60% of the portfolio to AlphaTech and 40% to BetaCorp. Considering the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and the portfolio allocation, what is the required rate of return for this portfolio? This calculation is crucial for determining if the portfolio aligns with the fund’s investment objectives and risk profile, especially given the current market conditions and regulatory requirements for risk assessment in fund management under MiFID II.
Correct
To solve this problem, we need to understand the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and how to use it to determine the required rate of return for an investment. The CAPM formula is: \[R_i = R_f + \beta_i (R_m – R_f)\] where \(R_i\) is the required rate of return for the investment, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, \(\beta_i\) is the beta of the investment, and \(R_m\) is the expected market return. In this scenario, we are given the information for two similar companies, “AlphaTech” and “BetaCorp,” and we need to determine the required rate of return for a portfolio consisting of both. First, we calculate the required rate of return for each company individually using CAPM. For AlphaTech: \(R_{AlphaTech} = 0.03 + 1.2(0.08 – 0.03) = 0.03 + 1.2(0.05) = 0.03 + 0.06 = 0.09\) or 9%. For BetaCorp: \(R_{BetaCorp} = 0.03 + 0.8(0.08 – 0.03) = 0.03 + 0.8(0.05) = 0.03 + 0.04 = 0.07\) or 7%. Next, we calculate the weighted average of the required rates of return based on the portfolio allocation. The portfolio is allocated 60% to AlphaTech and 40% to BetaCorp. Therefore, the weighted average required rate of return is: \(R_{portfolio} = 0.6(0.09) + 0.4(0.07) = 0.054 + 0.028 = 0.082\) or 8.2%. This means that an investor would require a return of 8.2% to compensate for the risk associated with holding this portfolio, given the market conditions and the risk profiles of AlphaTech and BetaCorp. This approach to calculating portfolio return emphasizes that the overall required return is a function of the individual assets’ risk profiles (betas) and their allocation within the portfolio. Understanding CAPM and portfolio weighting is crucial for fund managers to make informed investment decisions and meet their clients’ return expectations while managing risk effectively.
Incorrect
To solve this problem, we need to understand the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and how to use it to determine the required rate of return for an investment. The CAPM formula is: \[R_i = R_f + \beta_i (R_m – R_f)\] where \(R_i\) is the required rate of return for the investment, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, \(\beta_i\) is the beta of the investment, and \(R_m\) is the expected market return. In this scenario, we are given the information for two similar companies, “AlphaTech” and “BetaCorp,” and we need to determine the required rate of return for a portfolio consisting of both. First, we calculate the required rate of return for each company individually using CAPM. For AlphaTech: \(R_{AlphaTech} = 0.03 + 1.2(0.08 – 0.03) = 0.03 + 1.2(0.05) = 0.03 + 0.06 = 0.09\) or 9%. For BetaCorp: \(R_{BetaCorp} = 0.03 + 0.8(0.08 – 0.03) = 0.03 + 0.8(0.05) = 0.03 + 0.04 = 0.07\) or 7%. Next, we calculate the weighted average of the required rates of return based on the portfolio allocation. The portfolio is allocated 60% to AlphaTech and 40% to BetaCorp. Therefore, the weighted average required rate of return is: \(R_{portfolio} = 0.6(0.09) + 0.4(0.07) = 0.054 + 0.028 = 0.082\) or 8.2%. This means that an investor would require a return of 8.2% to compensate for the risk associated with holding this portfolio, given the market conditions and the risk profiles of AlphaTech and BetaCorp. This approach to calculating portfolio return emphasizes that the overall required return is a function of the individual assets’ risk profiles (betas) and their allocation within the portfolio. Understanding CAPM and portfolio weighting is crucial for fund managers to make informed investment decisions and meet their clients’ return expectations while managing risk effectively.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
A fund manager, Amelia Stone, manages a diversified portfolio of UK equities. Over the past year, the portfolio generated a return of 15%. During the same period, the risk-free rate, represented by UK government bonds, was 2%, and the FTSE 100 index returned 10%. The portfolio’s standard deviation was 12%, and its beta relative to the FTSE 100 was 1.1. Stone claims she has significantly outperformed the market and delivered exceptional value to her clients. Given this information, which of the following statements BEST evaluates Stone’s claim considering the risk-adjusted performance metrics?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. It measures the manager’s ability to generate returns above what would be expected given the level of risk taken. Beta measures a portfolio’s sensitivity to market movements. A beta of 1 indicates that the portfolio’s price will move in line with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates that the portfolio is more volatile than the market, while a beta less than 1 indicates that the portfolio is less volatile than the market. Treynor Ratio is a risk-adjusted performance measure that uses beta as a measure of systematic risk. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio to evaluate the portfolio’s performance. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation = (15% – 2%) / 12% = 1.0833 Alpha = Portfolio Return – (Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate)) = 15% – (2% + 1.1 * (10% – 2%)) = 15% – (2% + 8.8%) = 4.2% Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta = (15% – 2%) / 1.1 = 11.82% Using these calculations, we can evaluate the fund manager’s performance considering both risk and return.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. It measures the manager’s ability to generate returns above what would be expected given the level of risk taken. Beta measures a portfolio’s sensitivity to market movements. A beta of 1 indicates that the portfolio’s price will move in line with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates that the portfolio is more volatile than the market, while a beta less than 1 indicates that the portfolio is less volatile than the market. Treynor Ratio is a risk-adjusted performance measure that uses beta as a measure of systematic risk. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio to evaluate the portfolio’s performance. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation = (15% – 2%) / 12% = 1.0833 Alpha = Portfolio Return – (Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate)) = 15% – (2% + 1.1 * (10% – 2%)) = 15% – (2% + 8.8%) = 4.2% Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta = (15% – 2%) / 1.1 = 11.82% Using these calculations, we can evaluate the fund manager’s performance considering both risk and return.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
A fund manager, Amelia, manages a portfolio for a client with a long-term investment horizon and a moderate risk tolerance, as outlined in their Investment Policy Statement (IPS). The IPS specifies a strategic asset allocation of 60% equities and 40% fixed income. Currently, the portfolio consists of 500 shares of equity, each valued at £150, and 200 fixed income bonds, each valued at £500. Due to recent market movements, the portfolio’s asset allocation has drifted, and now significantly deviates from the target. The fund manager estimates transaction costs of £1 per share for equities and £2 per bond for fixed income. Considering the client’s IPS, the current market conditions, and the transaction costs, which of the following rebalancing strategies is MOST appropriate for Amelia to implement?
Correct
To determine the optimal rebalancing strategy, we need to consider the portfolio’s current allocation, the target allocation, and the transaction costs associated with rebalancing. The portfolio consists of equities and fixed income. We’ll calculate the current portfolio value, the target allocation for each asset class, and the amount of each asset to buy or sell to reach the target allocation. We then need to consider transaction costs and only rebalance if the benefit outweighs the cost. 1. **Calculate Current Portfolio Value:** * Equities: 500 shares \* £150/share = £75,000 * Fixed Income: 200 bonds \* £500/bond = £100,000 * Total Portfolio Value = £75,000 + £100,000 = £175,000 2. **Calculate Target Allocation:** * Target Equity Allocation: 60% \* £175,000 = £105,000 * Target Fixed Income Allocation: 40% \* £175,000 = £70,000 3. **Calculate Required Purchases/Sales:** * Equities: £105,000 (Target) – £75,000 (Current) = £30,000 (Buy) * Fixed Income: £70,000 (Target) – £100,000 (Current) = -£30,000 (Sell) 4. **Calculate Number of Shares/Bonds to Trade:** * Equities: £30,000 / £150/share = 200 shares (Buy) * Fixed Income: £30,000 / £500/bond = 60 bonds (Sell) 5. **Calculate Transaction Costs:** * Equity Transaction Cost: 200 shares \* £1/share = £200 * Fixed Income Transaction Cost: 60 bonds \* £2/bond = £120 * Total Transaction Costs = £200 + £120 = £320 Now, consider a scenario where the portfolio is *not* rebalanced. If equities continue to outperform fixed income, the portfolio drift will exacerbate, leading to a higher equity allocation and increased risk. Conversely, if fixed income outperforms, the portfolio will become more conservative. The question asks about the *most appropriate* rebalancing strategy considering transaction costs and the client’s IPS. A full rebalance corrects the allocation immediately but incurs transaction costs. A partial rebalance reduces the deviation but might not fully restore the target allocation. A “do nothing” approach avoids costs but allows drift. A tactical overweighting is only appropriate if the IPS allows for tactical deviations, which isn’t stated. Given the small transaction costs relative to the portfolio size and the need to adhere to the IPS, a full rebalance is generally most appropriate to minimize long-term deviation from the target and maintain the desired risk profile.
Incorrect
To determine the optimal rebalancing strategy, we need to consider the portfolio’s current allocation, the target allocation, and the transaction costs associated with rebalancing. The portfolio consists of equities and fixed income. We’ll calculate the current portfolio value, the target allocation for each asset class, and the amount of each asset to buy or sell to reach the target allocation. We then need to consider transaction costs and only rebalance if the benefit outweighs the cost. 1. **Calculate Current Portfolio Value:** * Equities: 500 shares \* £150/share = £75,000 * Fixed Income: 200 bonds \* £500/bond = £100,000 * Total Portfolio Value = £75,000 + £100,000 = £175,000 2. **Calculate Target Allocation:** * Target Equity Allocation: 60% \* £175,000 = £105,000 * Target Fixed Income Allocation: 40% \* £175,000 = £70,000 3. **Calculate Required Purchases/Sales:** * Equities: £105,000 (Target) – £75,000 (Current) = £30,000 (Buy) * Fixed Income: £70,000 (Target) – £100,000 (Current) = -£30,000 (Sell) 4. **Calculate Number of Shares/Bonds to Trade:** * Equities: £30,000 / £150/share = 200 shares (Buy) * Fixed Income: £30,000 / £500/bond = 60 bonds (Sell) 5. **Calculate Transaction Costs:** * Equity Transaction Cost: 200 shares \* £1/share = £200 * Fixed Income Transaction Cost: 60 bonds \* £2/bond = £120 * Total Transaction Costs = £200 + £120 = £320 Now, consider a scenario where the portfolio is *not* rebalanced. If equities continue to outperform fixed income, the portfolio drift will exacerbate, leading to a higher equity allocation and increased risk. Conversely, if fixed income outperforms, the portfolio will become more conservative. The question asks about the *most appropriate* rebalancing strategy considering transaction costs and the client’s IPS. A full rebalance corrects the allocation immediately but incurs transaction costs. A partial rebalance reduces the deviation but might not fully restore the target allocation. A “do nothing” approach avoids costs but allows drift. A tactical overweighting is only appropriate if the IPS allows for tactical deviations, which isn’t stated. Given the small transaction costs relative to the portfolio size and the need to adhere to the IPS, a full rebalance is generally most appropriate to minimize long-term deviation from the target and maintain the desired risk profile.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
A fund manager, Sarah, is evaluating the performance of Portfolio A. Portfolio A generated a return of 15% over the past year. The risk-free rate during the same period was 3%. The standard deviation of Portfolio A’s returns was 8%. Using the Sharpe Ratio, assess the risk-adjusted performance of Portfolio A. What is the Sharpe Ratio of Portfolio A, and what does this value indicate about the portfolio’s performance relative to its risk? Consider a similar portfolio, Portfolio B, with the same return and risk-free rate, but a standard deviation of 12%. How would Portfolio A compare to Portfolio B in terms of risk-adjusted return, based on their respective Sharpe Ratios? Assume that Sarah adheres to the CISI Code of Ethics and Conduct, ensuring transparency and fairness in her analysis and reporting of performance metrics to clients.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It quantifies how much excess return an investment generates for each unit of total risk it takes. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: Sharpe Ratio = (Rp – Rf) / σp Where: Rp = Portfolio Return Rf = Risk-Free Rate σp = Standard Deviation of the portfolio’s excess return In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio A. We are given the portfolio return (15%), the risk-free rate (3%), and the standard deviation (8%). Plugging these values into the formula, we get: Sharpe Ratio = (0.15 – 0.03) / 0.08 = 0.12 / 0.08 = 1.5 A Sharpe Ratio of 1.5 indicates that for every unit of risk taken, the portfolio generates 1.5 units of excess return. This is generally considered a good Sharpe Ratio, indicating a favorable risk-return profile. Consider a scenario where two fund managers, Amelia and Ben, are presenting their fund performance to a client. Amelia’s fund has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.8, while Ben’s fund boasts a Sharpe Ratio of 1.6. Even if Amelia’s fund has a higher absolute return, Ben’s fund is more attractive on a risk-adjusted basis. This is because Ben’s fund delivers more return per unit of risk, suggesting a more efficient use of capital and better risk management. Sharpe Ratio is a crucial tool for comparing investment options, helping investors make informed decisions based on risk and return.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It quantifies how much excess return an investment generates for each unit of total risk it takes. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: Sharpe Ratio = (Rp – Rf) / σp Where: Rp = Portfolio Return Rf = Risk-Free Rate σp = Standard Deviation of the portfolio’s excess return In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio A. We are given the portfolio return (15%), the risk-free rate (3%), and the standard deviation (8%). Plugging these values into the formula, we get: Sharpe Ratio = (0.15 – 0.03) / 0.08 = 0.12 / 0.08 = 1.5 A Sharpe Ratio of 1.5 indicates that for every unit of risk taken, the portfolio generates 1.5 units of excess return. This is generally considered a good Sharpe Ratio, indicating a favorable risk-return profile. Consider a scenario where two fund managers, Amelia and Ben, are presenting their fund performance to a client. Amelia’s fund has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.8, while Ben’s fund boasts a Sharpe Ratio of 1.6. Even if Amelia’s fund has a higher absolute return, Ben’s fund is more attractive on a risk-adjusted basis. This is because Ben’s fund delivers more return per unit of risk, suggesting a more efficient use of capital and better risk management. Sharpe Ratio is a crucial tool for comparing investment options, helping investors make informed decisions based on risk and return.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Penrose Investment Management is evaluating the performance of four fund managers, each managing a distinct equity portfolio. The risk-free rate is currently 2%. Over the past year, the portfolios have delivered the following results: Fund Manager A: Portfolio Return 15%, Standard Deviation 12%, Beta 0.8, Alpha 5% Fund Manager B: Portfolio Return 18%, Standard Deviation 18%, Beta 1.2, Alpha 7% Fund Manager C: Portfolio Return 12%, Standard Deviation 8%, Beta 0.6, Alpha 3% Fund Manager D: Portfolio Return 20%, Standard Deviation 22%, Beta 1.5, Alpha 8% Based on these results and considering Sharpe Ratio, Treynor Ratio, and Alpha, which fund manager has demonstrated the best risk-adjusted performance? Assume all portfolios are well-diversified and that all returns are net of fees. The investment committee is particularly interested in strategies that provide superior returns relative to the risk undertaken, adhering to the FCA’s principles of fair treatment of customers and ensuring suitable investment advice.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. Beta measures the volatility of an investment relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the investment moves in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk (beta). It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. In this scenario, we need to calculate each ratio to determine which fund manager performed best on a risk-adjusted basis. For Sharpe Ratio, the higher the value, the better. For Treynor Ratio, the higher the value, the better. Alpha directly represents excess return, so a higher alpha is better. Fund Manager A: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 12% = 1.083; Treynor Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 0.8 = 16.25%; Alpha = 5% Fund Manager B: Sharpe Ratio = (18% – 2%) / 18% = 0.889; Treynor Ratio = (18% – 2%) / 1.2 = 13.33%; Alpha = 7% Fund Manager C: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 8% = 1.25; Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 0.6 = 16.67%; Alpha = 3% Fund Manager D: Sharpe Ratio = (20% – 2%) / 22% = 0.818; Treynor Ratio = (20% – 2%) / 1.5 = 12%; Alpha = 8% Comparing the Sharpe Ratios, Fund Manager C has the highest at 1.25. Comparing the Treynor Ratios, Fund Manager C has the highest at 16.67%. While Fund Manager D has the highest Alpha, it’s important to consider risk. The Sharpe and Treynor ratios adjust for risk. Therefore, Fund Manager C, with the highest Sharpe and Treynor ratios, demonstrates the best risk-adjusted performance. Alpha can be misleading without considering risk.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. Beta measures the volatility of an investment relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the investment moves in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk (beta). It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. In this scenario, we need to calculate each ratio to determine which fund manager performed best on a risk-adjusted basis. For Sharpe Ratio, the higher the value, the better. For Treynor Ratio, the higher the value, the better. Alpha directly represents excess return, so a higher alpha is better. Fund Manager A: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 12% = 1.083; Treynor Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 0.8 = 16.25%; Alpha = 5% Fund Manager B: Sharpe Ratio = (18% – 2%) / 18% = 0.889; Treynor Ratio = (18% – 2%) / 1.2 = 13.33%; Alpha = 7% Fund Manager C: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 8% = 1.25; Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 0.6 = 16.67%; Alpha = 3% Fund Manager D: Sharpe Ratio = (20% – 2%) / 22% = 0.818; Treynor Ratio = (20% – 2%) / 1.5 = 12%; Alpha = 8% Comparing the Sharpe Ratios, Fund Manager C has the highest at 1.25. Comparing the Treynor Ratios, Fund Manager C has the highest at 16.67%. While Fund Manager D has the highest Alpha, it’s important to consider risk. The Sharpe and Treynor ratios adjust for risk. Therefore, Fund Manager C, with the highest Sharpe and Treynor ratios, demonstrates the best risk-adjusted performance. Alpha can be misleading without considering risk.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
A fund manager, Sarah, manages an equity fund with a total return of 15% over the past year. During the same period, the risk-free rate was 2%, the fund’s standard deviation was 12%, and its beta was 1.1. The benchmark index returned 10% with a standard deviation of 8%. Sarah’s performance review is coming up, and her senior analyst, David, needs to prepare a summary of her performance relative to the benchmark. Considering the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio, how would you best describe Sarah’s performance relative to the benchmark? Assume that the fund is benchmarked against the index.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark. Beta measures the systematic risk or volatility of a portfolio in relation to the market. Treynor Ratio is (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. It measures the risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio for the fund and compare them to the benchmark. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation Fund Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 12% = 1.0833 Benchmark Sharpe Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 8% = 1.0 Alpha = Portfolio Return – [Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate)] Fund Alpha = 15% – [2% + 1.1 * (10% – 2%)] = 15% – [2% + 8.8%] = 4.2% Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta Fund Treynor Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 1.1 = 11.82% Comparing the fund’s metrics to the benchmark: – Sharpe Ratio: 1.0833 > 1.0 (Fund is better) – Alpha: 4.2% > 0% (Fund generated excess return) – Treynor Ratio: 11.82% (Fund performance relative to systematic risk) The fund has a higher Sharpe Ratio, indicating better risk-adjusted performance. It also has a positive Alpha, showing it generated excess return above what would be expected based on its beta. The Treynor Ratio provides a measure of return per unit of systematic risk.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark. Beta measures the systematic risk or volatility of a portfolio in relation to the market. Treynor Ratio is (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. It measures the risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio for the fund and compare them to the benchmark. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation Fund Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 12% = 1.0833 Benchmark Sharpe Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 8% = 1.0 Alpha = Portfolio Return – [Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate)] Fund Alpha = 15% – [2% + 1.1 * (10% – 2%)] = 15% – [2% + 8.8%] = 4.2% Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta Fund Treynor Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 1.1 = 11.82% Comparing the fund’s metrics to the benchmark: – Sharpe Ratio: 1.0833 > 1.0 (Fund is better) – Alpha: 4.2% > 0% (Fund generated excess return) – Treynor Ratio: 11.82% (Fund performance relative to systematic risk) The fund has a higher Sharpe Ratio, indicating better risk-adjusted performance. It also has a positive Alpha, showing it generated excess return above what would be expected based on its beta. The Treynor Ratio provides a measure of return per unit of systematic risk.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
A fund manager, Sarah, manages a £3,000,000 portfolio with a strategic asset allocation of 60% equities and 40% bonds. Sarah decides to implement a tactical asset allocation strategy based on her analysis of upcoming economic data, shifting the portfolio to 50% equities and 50% bonds. Over the investment period, the equity portion of the portfolio returns 12%, while the bond portion returns 5%. The risk-free rate is 2%, and the portfolio’s standard deviation is 8%. Considering the tactical asset allocation and the given returns, calculate the Sharpe ratio for Sarah’s portfolio. What does this Sharpe ratio indicate about the portfolio’s risk-adjusted performance, and how might it influence future tactical allocation decisions under CISI guidelines?
Correct
Let’s break down this problem step-by-step, focusing on the impact of tactical asset allocation adjustments on portfolio performance, especially when considering risk-adjusted returns. First, we need to calculate the initial portfolio value. With £3,000,000 allocated according to the strategic allocation (60% equities, 40% bonds), we have £1,800,000 in equities (0.60 * £3,000,000) and £1,200,000 in bonds (0.40 * £3,000,000). Next, we need to determine the portfolio value after the tactical allocation shift. The portfolio is reallocated to 50% equities and 50% bonds. Therefore, the portfolio now has £1,500,000 in equities (0.50 * £3,000,000) and £1,500,000 in bonds (0.50 * £3,000,000). Now, let’s calculate the returns. Equities return 12%, so the £1,500,000 equity portion generates £180,000 (0.12 * £1,500,000). Bonds return 5%, so the £1,500,000 bond portion generates £75,000 (0.05 * £1,500,000). The total portfolio return is £255,000 (£180,000 + £75,000). The final portfolio value is the initial value plus the return: £3,000,000 + £255,000 = £3,255,000. Now, let’s calculate the Sharpe ratio. The formula for the Sharpe ratio is: \[ Sharpe Ratio = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where: \( R_p \) is the portfolio return, \( R_f \) is the risk-free rate, and \( \sigma_p \) is the portfolio standard deviation. The portfolio return \( R_p \) is calculated as (£3,255,000 – £3,000,000) / £3,000,000 = 0.085 or 8.5%. The risk-free rate \( R_f \) is given as 2%. The portfolio standard deviation \( \sigma_p \) is given as 8%. Now we can calculate the Sharpe ratio: \[ Sharpe Ratio = \frac{0.085 – 0.02}{0.08} = \frac{0.065}{0.08} = 0.8125 \] Therefore, the Sharpe ratio for the portfolio after the tactical asset allocation is 0.8125. This example illustrates how tactical asset allocation can impact portfolio returns and risk-adjusted performance. Even though the portfolio experienced positive returns, the Sharpe ratio provides a standardized measure of return per unit of risk, allowing for comparison against other investment strategies or benchmarks. A higher Sharpe ratio generally indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Consider a scenario where the equity market experiences a sudden downturn. A tactical shift towards bonds, even if it means missing out on potential equity gains, could protect the portfolio from significant losses, potentially leading to a higher Sharpe ratio due to reduced volatility. The key is to balance potential returns with the level of risk taken to achieve those returns, and the Sharpe ratio is a valuable tool in this assessment.
Incorrect
Let’s break down this problem step-by-step, focusing on the impact of tactical asset allocation adjustments on portfolio performance, especially when considering risk-adjusted returns. First, we need to calculate the initial portfolio value. With £3,000,000 allocated according to the strategic allocation (60% equities, 40% bonds), we have £1,800,000 in equities (0.60 * £3,000,000) and £1,200,000 in bonds (0.40 * £3,000,000). Next, we need to determine the portfolio value after the tactical allocation shift. The portfolio is reallocated to 50% equities and 50% bonds. Therefore, the portfolio now has £1,500,000 in equities (0.50 * £3,000,000) and £1,500,000 in bonds (0.50 * £3,000,000). Now, let’s calculate the returns. Equities return 12%, so the £1,500,000 equity portion generates £180,000 (0.12 * £1,500,000). Bonds return 5%, so the £1,500,000 bond portion generates £75,000 (0.05 * £1,500,000). The total portfolio return is £255,000 (£180,000 + £75,000). The final portfolio value is the initial value plus the return: £3,000,000 + £255,000 = £3,255,000. Now, let’s calculate the Sharpe ratio. The formula for the Sharpe ratio is: \[ Sharpe Ratio = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where: \( R_p \) is the portfolio return, \( R_f \) is the risk-free rate, and \( \sigma_p \) is the portfolio standard deviation. The portfolio return \( R_p \) is calculated as (£3,255,000 – £3,000,000) / £3,000,000 = 0.085 or 8.5%. The risk-free rate \( R_f \) is given as 2%. The portfolio standard deviation \( \sigma_p \) is given as 8%. Now we can calculate the Sharpe ratio: \[ Sharpe Ratio = \frac{0.085 – 0.02}{0.08} = \frac{0.065}{0.08} = 0.8125 \] Therefore, the Sharpe ratio for the portfolio after the tactical asset allocation is 0.8125. This example illustrates how tactical asset allocation can impact portfolio returns and risk-adjusted performance. Even though the portfolio experienced positive returns, the Sharpe ratio provides a standardized measure of return per unit of risk, allowing for comparison against other investment strategies or benchmarks. A higher Sharpe ratio generally indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Consider a scenario where the equity market experiences a sudden downturn. A tactical shift towards bonds, even if it means missing out on potential equity gains, could protect the portfolio from significant losses, potentially leading to a higher Sharpe ratio due to reduced volatility. The key is to balance potential returns with the level of risk taken to achieve those returns, and the Sharpe ratio is a valuable tool in this assessment.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
An investment analyst is evaluating the performance of two actively managed funds, Fund A and Fund B, over the past five years. Fund A achieved an average annual return of 12% with a standard deviation of 10% and a beta of 0.8. Fund B achieved an average annual return of 14% with a standard deviation of 15% and a beta of 1.2. The average risk-free rate during the period was 3%. After conducting preliminary analysis, the analyst calculated the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio for both funds. Fund A has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.15, an Alpha of 2.5%, and a Treynor Ratio of 0.08. Fund B has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.95, an Alpha of -1.0%, and a Treynor Ratio of 0.06. Considering the analyst’s findings and the risk-return characteristics of both funds, which fund would be the more suitable investment for an investor seeking higher risk-adjusted returns and lower systematic risk, and why?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark, adjusted for risk. It quantifies the value added by the fund manager. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using systematic risk (beta) instead of total risk (standard deviation). It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. Beta measures a portfolio’s systematic risk, indicating its volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 means the portfolio’s price tends to move with the market; a beta greater than 1 indicates higher volatility, and a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. In this scenario, Fund A has a higher Sharpe Ratio (1.15) than Fund B (0.95), indicating better risk-adjusted performance based on total risk. Fund A also has a positive alpha (2.5%), suggesting it outperformed its benchmark after adjusting for risk. Fund B has a negative alpha (-1.0%), indicating underperformance. The Treynor Ratio further refines the risk assessment by focusing on systematic risk. Fund A’s Treynor Ratio (0.08) is higher than Fund B’s (0.06), meaning that for each unit of systematic risk, Fund A generated a higher excess return. Fund A’s beta (0.8) is lower than Fund B’s (1.2), indicating that Fund A is less volatile than Fund B relative to the market. The Sharpe Ratio considers total risk, while the Treynor Ratio considers only systematic risk. Fund A’s higher Sharpe Ratio and Treynor Ratio, combined with positive alpha and lower beta, indicate superior risk-adjusted performance and value addition compared to Fund B. Therefore, Fund A is the better choice for an investor seeking higher risk-adjusted returns and lower systematic risk.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark, adjusted for risk. It quantifies the value added by the fund manager. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using systematic risk (beta) instead of total risk (standard deviation). It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. Beta measures a portfolio’s systematic risk, indicating its volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 means the portfolio’s price tends to move with the market; a beta greater than 1 indicates higher volatility, and a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. In this scenario, Fund A has a higher Sharpe Ratio (1.15) than Fund B (0.95), indicating better risk-adjusted performance based on total risk. Fund A also has a positive alpha (2.5%), suggesting it outperformed its benchmark after adjusting for risk. Fund B has a negative alpha (-1.0%), indicating underperformance. The Treynor Ratio further refines the risk assessment by focusing on systematic risk. Fund A’s Treynor Ratio (0.08) is higher than Fund B’s (0.06), meaning that for each unit of systematic risk, Fund A generated a higher excess return. Fund A’s beta (0.8) is lower than Fund B’s (1.2), indicating that Fund A is less volatile than Fund B relative to the market. The Sharpe Ratio considers total risk, while the Treynor Ratio considers only systematic risk. Fund A’s higher Sharpe Ratio and Treynor Ratio, combined with positive alpha and lower beta, indicate superior risk-adjusted performance and value addition compared to Fund B. Therefore, Fund A is the better choice for an investor seeking higher risk-adjusted returns and lower systematic risk.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
A fund manager, Amelia Stone, is evaluating the performance of three different investment portfolios (A, B, and C) under her management. Over the past year, Portfolio A generated a return of 12% with a standard deviation of 8%. Portfolio B generated a return of 15% with a standard deviation of 12%. Portfolio C generated a return of 10% with a standard deviation of 5%. The risk-free rate during this period was 3%. Amelia is required to report the risk-adjusted performance of these portfolios to the board of directors, adhering to CISI ethical standards for fair representation of investment performance. Which portfolio, based solely on the Sharpe Ratio, provided the best risk-adjusted return, and how should Amelia justify this choice to the board, considering the regulatory emphasis on transparent and unbiased performance reporting?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as the excess return (portfolio return minus the risk-free rate) divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted performance. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Rp – Rf) / σp, where Rp is the portfolio return, Rf is the risk-free rate, and σp is the portfolio’s standard deviation. In this scenario, we are given the returns of three portfolios (A, B, and C) and the risk-free rate. We also know the standard deviations of each portfolio. To determine which portfolio has the highest Sharpe Ratio, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for each portfolio and compare the results. For Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 8% = 9% / 8% = 1.125 For Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 3%) / 12% = 12% / 12% = 1.00 For Portfolio C: Sharpe Ratio = (10% – 3%) / 5% = 7% / 5% = 1.40 Comparing the Sharpe Ratios, Portfolio C has the highest Sharpe Ratio (1.40), indicating that it provides the best risk-adjusted return among the three portfolios. This means for each unit of risk taken (as measured by standard deviation), Portfolio C generates a higher return compared to Portfolios A and B. It’s like comparing three different routes to the same destination. Route A is slightly longer but less bumpy, Route B is moderately longer and bumpier, and Route C is the shortest but also the bumpiest. The Sharpe Ratio helps us determine which route provides the best balance between travel time (return) and road conditions (risk). In this case, Route C, despite being the bumpiest, gets you there the fastest relative to the bumps you experience. The higher the Sharpe Ratio, the better the risk-adjusted return, making Portfolio C the most attractive option.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as the excess return (portfolio return minus the risk-free rate) divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted performance. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Rp – Rf) / σp, where Rp is the portfolio return, Rf is the risk-free rate, and σp is the portfolio’s standard deviation. In this scenario, we are given the returns of three portfolios (A, B, and C) and the risk-free rate. We also know the standard deviations of each portfolio. To determine which portfolio has the highest Sharpe Ratio, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for each portfolio and compare the results. For Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 8% = 9% / 8% = 1.125 For Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 3%) / 12% = 12% / 12% = 1.00 For Portfolio C: Sharpe Ratio = (10% – 3%) / 5% = 7% / 5% = 1.40 Comparing the Sharpe Ratios, Portfolio C has the highest Sharpe Ratio (1.40), indicating that it provides the best risk-adjusted return among the three portfolios. This means for each unit of risk taken (as measured by standard deviation), Portfolio C generates a higher return compared to Portfolios A and B. It’s like comparing three different routes to the same destination. Route A is slightly longer but less bumpy, Route B is moderately longer and bumpier, and Route C is the shortest but also the bumpiest. The Sharpe Ratio helps us determine which route provides the best balance between travel time (return) and road conditions (risk). In this case, Route C, despite being the bumpiest, gets you there the fastest relative to the bumps you experience. The higher the Sharpe Ratio, the better the risk-adjusted return, making Portfolio C the most attractive option.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
A fund manager, Emily, is evaluating the performance of her actively managed UK equity fund against its benchmark, the FTSE 100 index. Over the past year, Emily’s fund achieved a return of 14% with a standard deviation of 8%. The FTSE 100 index returned 11% with a standard deviation of 6%. The risk-free rate during this period was 2%. Emily’s colleague, John, argues that Emily has outperformed the benchmark due to the higher absolute return. However, Emily wants to assess the performance on a risk-adjusted basis. Based on the Sharpe Ratio, which of the following statements is most accurate regarding Emily’s fund performance relative to the FTSE 100 benchmark?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It quantifies how much excess return an investment generates for each unit of total risk it takes. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where: \( R_p \) = Portfolio Return \( R_f \) = Risk-Free Rate \( \sigma_p \) = Portfolio Standard Deviation In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for the fund and compare it to the benchmark. First, we need to determine the fund’s excess return by subtracting the risk-free rate from the fund’s return. Then, we divide the excess return by the fund’s standard deviation to get the Sharpe Ratio. Next, we compare the fund’s Sharpe Ratio to the benchmark’s Sharpe Ratio to determine if the fund has outperformed the benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis. Fund Sharpe Ratio: Excess Return = 14% – 2% = 12% Sharpe Ratio = 12% / 8% = 1.5 Benchmark Sharpe Ratio: Excess Return = 11% – 2% = 9% Sharpe Ratio = 9% / 6% = 1.5 In this specific case, the Sharpe Ratio for both the fund and the benchmark is 1.5. Therefore, the fund has performed equally to the benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis. It’s crucial to consider Sharpe Ratio alongside other metrics like Alpha and Beta for a comprehensive performance evaluation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. However, it’s important to note that Sharpe Ratio is just one tool and should be used in conjunction with other performance metrics. It also assumes that returns are normally distributed, which may not always be the case, especially with alternative investments. In situations where returns are not normally distributed, other measures like Sortino Ratio (which only considers downside risk) might be more appropriate. Furthermore, the Sharpe Ratio is sensitive to the accuracy of the risk-free rate and standard deviation estimates.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It quantifies how much excess return an investment generates for each unit of total risk it takes. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where: \( R_p \) = Portfolio Return \( R_f \) = Risk-Free Rate \( \sigma_p \) = Portfolio Standard Deviation In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for the fund and compare it to the benchmark. First, we need to determine the fund’s excess return by subtracting the risk-free rate from the fund’s return. Then, we divide the excess return by the fund’s standard deviation to get the Sharpe Ratio. Next, we compare the fund’s Sharpe Ratio to the benchmark’s Sharpe Ratio to determine if the fund has outperformed the benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis. Fund Sharpe Ratio: Excess Return = 14% – 2% = 12% Sharpe Ratio = 12% / 8% = 1.5 Benchmark Sharpe Ratio: Excess Return = 11% – 2% = 9% Sharpe Ratio = 9% / 6% = 1.5 In this specific case, the Sharpe Ratio for both the fund and the benchmark is 1.5. Therefore, the fund has performed equally to the benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis. It’s crucial to consider Sharpe Ratio alongside other metrics like Alpha and Beta for a comprehensive performance evaluation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. However, it’s important to note that Sharpe Ratio is just one tool and should be used in conjunction with other performance metrics. It also assumes that returns are normally distributed, which may not always be the case, especially with alternative investments. In situations where returns are not normally distributed, other measures like Sortino Ratio (which only considers downside risk) might be more appropriate. Furthermore, the Sharpe Ratio is sensitive to the accuracy of the risk-free rate and standard deviation estimates.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Penrose Investments, a UK-based fund management company, is evaluating the performance of two portfolios, Portfolio X and Portfolio Y, managed by different fund managers. Portfolio X has generated a return of 15% with a standard deviation of 12% and a beta of 0.85. Portfolio Y has generated a return of 18% with a standard deviation of 15% and a beta of 1.15. The risk-free rate is currently 2%. The investment committee at Penrose Investments uses Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio to assess the risk-adjusted performance of these portfolios. Considering the regulatory environment governed by the FCA and the need to ensure compliance with MiFID II requirements for performance reporting, which portfolio demonstrates superior risk-adjusted performance based on these metrics, and what are the key considerations for Penrose Investments when interpreting these results in the context of their fiduciary duty to clients?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark, adjusted for risk. A positive alpha suggests the investment has outperformed its benchmark. Beta measures a portfolio’s volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility than the market, while a beta less than 1 suggests lower volatility. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk (beta). It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance considering systematic risk. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio for Portfolio X and then compare them to Portfolio Y. Sharpe Ratio Portfolio X = (15% – 2%) / 12% = 1.083 Alpha Portfolio X = 15% – [2% + 0.85 * (10% – 2%)] = 15% – (2% + 6.8%) = 6.2% Treynor Ratio Portfolio X = (15% – 2%) / 0.85 = 15.29% Sharpe Ratio Portfolio Y = (18% – 2%) / 15% = 1.067 Alpha Portfolio Y = 18% – [2% + 1.15 * (10% – 2%)] = 18% – (2% + 9.2%) = 6.8% Treynor Ratio Portfolio Y = (18% – 2%) / 1.15 = 13.91% Comparing the two portfolios: – Portfolio X has a slightly higher Sharpe Ratio (1.083) than Portfolio Y (1.067), indicating better risk-adjusted performance. – Portfolio Y has a higher Alpha (6.8%) than Portfolio X (6.2%), suggesting it has outperformed its benchmark more effectively. – Portfolio X has a higher Treynor Ratio (15.29%) than Portfolio Y (13.91%), indicating better risk-adjusted performance considering systematic risk. Therefore, based on these metrics, Portfolio X is superior in terms of Sharpe and Treynor ratios, while Portfolio Y is superior in terms of Alpha.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark, adjusted for risk. A positive alpha suggests the investment has outperformed its benchmark. Beta measures a portfolio’s volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility than the market, while a beta less than 1 suggests lower volatility. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk (beta). It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance considering systematic risk. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio for Portfolio X and then compare them to Portfolio Y. Sharpe Ratio Portfolio X = (15% – 2%) / 12% = 1.083 Alpha Portfolio X = 15% – [2% + 0.85 * (10% – 2%)] = 15% – (2% + 6.8%) = 6.2% Treynor Ratio Portfolio X = (15% – 2%) / 0.85 = 15.29% Sharpe Ratio Portfolio Y = (18% – 2%) / 15% = 1.067 Alpha Portfolio Y = 18% – [2% + 1.15 * (10% – 2%)] = 18% – (2% + 9.2%) = 6.8% Treynor Ratio Portfolio Y = (18% – 2%) / 1.15 = 13.91% Comparing the two portfolios: – Portfolio X has a slightly higher Sharpe Ratio (1.083) than Portfolio Y (1.067), indicating better risk-adjusted performance. – Portfolio Y has a higher Alpha (6.8%) than Portfolio X (6.2%), suggesting it has outperformed its benchmark more effectively. – Portfolio X has a higher Treynor Ratio (15.29%) than Portfolio Y (13.91%), indicating better risk-adjusted performance considering systematic risk. Therefore, based on these metrics, Portfolio X is superior in terms of Sharpe and Treynor ratios, while Portfolio Y is superior in terms of Alpha.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
A fund manager, Anya, is managing a portfolio for a high-net-worth individual with a moderate risk tolerance. The portfolio currently consists of two assets: GreenTech Innovations (GTI), a technology stock, and StableYield Bonds (SYB), a corporate bond fund. GTI has an expected return of 15% and a standard deviation of 25%. SYB has an expected return of 5% and a standard deviation of 8%. Anya has allocated 70% of the portfolio to GTI and 30% to SYB. The correlation between GTI and SYB is 0.3. After a review of the client’s investment policy statement, Anya decides to implement a sophisticated hedging strategy to reduce the correlation between GTI and SYB to -0.1, without changing the asset allocation. Given the initial portfolio allocation and the reduced correlation, what is the approximate standard deviation of the portfolio after implementing the hedging strategy? Assume no changes in the individual asset standard deviations or expected returns.
Correct
Let’s break down how to calculate the expected return and standard deviation of a portfolio, and then apply this to a unique scenario. First, we need to understand the basics of portfolio theory. The expected return of a portfolio is the weighted average of the expected returns of the individual assets. The formula is: \(E(R_p) = \sum_{i=1}^{n} w_i E(R_i)\), where \(w_i\) is the weight of asset \(i\) in the portfolio and \(E(R_i)\) is the expected return of asset \(i\). The portfolio standard deviation requires considering the correlations between the assets. The formula for a two-asset portfolio is: \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{w_1^2\sigma_1^2 + w_2^2\sigma_2^2 + 2w_1w_2\rho_{1,2}\sigma_1\sigma_2}\], where \(\sigma_1\) and \(\sigma_2\) are the standard deviations of asset 1 and asset 2, respectively, and \(\rho_{1,2}\) is the correlation coefficient between the returns of the two assets. In our scenario, we have a fund manager, Anya, who is constructing a portfolio with two assets: GreenTech Innovations (GTI) and StableYield Bonds (SYB). GTI has an expected return of 15% and a standard deviation of 25%. SYB has an expected return of 5% and a standard deviation of 8%. Anya allocates 70% of the portfolio to GTI and 30% to SYB. The correlation between GTI and SYB is 0.3. First, we calculate the expected return of the portfolio: \(E(R_p) = (0.7 \times 0.15) + (0.3 \times 0.05) = 0.105 + 0.015 = 0.12\) or 12%. Next, we calculate the standard deviation of the portfolio: \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.7)^2(0.25)^2 + (0.3)^2(0.08)^2 + 2(0.7)(0.3)(0.3)(0.25)(0.08)}\] \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.49)(0.0625) + (0.09)(0.0064) + 2(0.7)(0.3)(0.3)(0.25)(0.08)}\] \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{0.030625 + 0.000576 + 0.00252} = \sqrt{0.033721} \approx 0.1836\] or 18.36%. Now, let’s consider a more complex scenario. Imagine Anya wants to assess the impact of changing the correlation between GTI and SYB. She runs simulations and finds that by implementing a sophisticated hedging strategy, she can reduce the correlation to -0.1. Recalculating the portfolio standard deviation with the new correlation: \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.7)^2(0.25)^2 + (0.3)^2(0.08)^2 + 2(0.7)(0.3)(-0.1)(0.25)(0.08)}\] \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{0.030625 + 0.000576 – 0.00084} = \sqrt{0.030361} \approx 0.1742\] or 17.42%. This shows how reducing correlation can lower portfolio risk, even without changing asset allocations. Finally, consider a scenario where Anya uses leverage. She borrows an amount equal to 20% of her initial capital and invests it proportionally in GTI and SYB, maintaining the 70/30 split. This means her new weights are 0.7 * 1.2 = 0.84 for GTI and 0.3 * 1.2 = 0.36 for SYB. Her expected return now becomes: \(E(R_p) = (0.84 \times 0.15) + (0.36 \times 0.05) – (0.2 \times r)\), where \(r\) is the borrowing rate. If the borrowing rate is 3%, \(E(R_p) = 0.126 + 0.018 – 0.006 = 0.138\) or 13.8%. However, leverage also increases the standard deviation. This example demonstrates how leverage can amplify both returns and risks, requiring careful management.
Incorrect
Let’s break down how to calculate the expected return and standard deviation of a portfolio, and then apply this to a unique scenario. First, we need to understand the basics of portfolio theory. The expected return of a portfolio is the weighted average of the expected returns of the individual assets. The formula is: \(E(R_p) = \sum_{i=1}^{n} w_i E(R_i)\), where \(w_i\) is the weight of asset \(i\) in the portfolio and \(E(R_i)\) is the expected return of asset \(i\). The portfolio standard deviation requires considering the correlations between the assets. The formula for a two-asset portfolio is: \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{w_1^2\sigma_1^2 + w_2^2\sigma_2^2 + 2w_1w_2\rho_{1,2}\sigma_1\sigma_2}\], where \(\sigma_1\) and \(\sigma_2\) are the standard deviations of asset 1 and asset 2, respectively, and \(\rho_{1,2}\) is the correlation coefficient between the returns of the two assets. In our scenario, we have a fund manager, Anya, who is constructing a portfolio with two assets: GreenTech Innovations (GTI) and StableYield Bonds (SYB). GTI has an expected return of 15% and a standard deviation of 25%. SYB has an expected return of 5% and a standard deviation of 8%. Anya allocates 70% of the portfolio to GTI and 30% to SYB. The correlation between GTI and SYB is 0.3. First, we calculate the expected return of the portfolio: \(E(R_p) = (0.7 \times 0.15) + (0.3 \times 0.05) = 0.105 + 0.015 = 0.12\) or 12%. Next, we calculate the standard deviation of the portfolio: \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.7)^2(0.25)^2 + (0.3)^2(0.08)^2 + 2(0.7)(0.3)(0.3)(0.25)(0.08)}\] \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.49)(0.0625) + (0.09)(0.0064) + 2(0.7)(0.3)(0.3)(0.25)(0.08)}\] \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{0.030625 + 0.000576 + 0.00252} = \sqrt{0.033721} \approx 0.1836\] or 18.36%. Now, let’s consider a more complex scenario. Imagine Anya wants to assess the impact of changing the correlation between GTI and SYB. She runs simulations and finds that by implementing a sophisticated hedging strategy, she can reduce the correlation to -0.1. Recalculating the portfolio standard deviation with the new correlation: \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.7)^2(0.25)^2 + (0.3)^2(0.08)^2 + 2(0.7)(0.3)(-0.1)(0.25)(0.08)}\] \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{0.030625 + 0.000576 – 0.00084} = \sqrt{0.030361} \approx 0.1742\] or 17.42%. This shows how reducing correlation can lower portfolio risk, even without changing asset allocations. Finally, consider a scenario where Anya uses leverage. She borrows an amount equal to 20% of her initial capital and invests it proportionally in GTI and SYB, maintaining the 70/30 split. This means her new weights are 0.7 * 1.2 = 0.84 for GTI and 0.3 * 1.2 = 0.36 for SYB. Her expected return now becomes: \(E(R_p) = (0.84 \times 0.15) + (0.36 \times 0.05) – (0.2 \times r)\), where \(r\) is the borrowing rate. If the borrowing rate is 3%, \(E(R_p) = 0.126 + 0.018 – 0.006 = 0.138\) or 13.8%. However, leverage also increases the standard deviation. This example demonstrates how leverage can amplify both returns and risks, requiring careful management.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Two fund managers, Emily and David, are being evaluated based on their fund performance over the past year. Emily managed Fund A, which generated a return of 12% with a standard deviation of 15%. David managed Fund B, which generated a return of 15% with a standard deviation of 20%. The risk-free rate during this period was 2%. A client, Sarah, is risk-averse and wants to understand which fund manager delivered better risk-adjusted performance, considering the volatility associated with each fund. Based on the Sharpe Ratio, which fund manager would be considered to have performed better on a risk-adjusted basis, and what does this imply for Sarah’s investment decision, considering her risk aversion?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted performance. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for both Fund A and Fund B and then compare them to determine which fund performed better on a risk-adjusted basis. For Fund A: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 10% / 15% = 0.6667 For Fund B: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 20% = 13% / 20% = 0.65 Comparing the Sharpe Ratios, Fund A has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.6667, while Fund B has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.65. Therefore, Fund A performed slightly better on a risk-adjusted basis, meaning it provided a higher return per unit of risk taken. Now, let’s consider a real-world analogy. Imagine two ice cream shops: “Scoops Ahoy” (Fund A) and “Dairy Delights” (Fund B). Scoops Ahoy offers a slightly less extravagant ice cream experience (lower return) but with a more stable and predictable business model (lower risk). Dairy Delights, on the other hand, offers incredibly elaborate and exciting ice cream creations (higher return), but their business is more volatile, depending on the latest trends and ingredient availability (higher risk). If you only looked at the pure “deliciousness” (return), Dairy Delights might seem better. However, if you consider the stability and reliability of getting your ice cream fix (risk), Scoops Ahoy provides a better overall experience because you are more likely to consistently enjoy their product. This is similar to the Sharpe Ratio, which adjusts the return for the amount of risk taken. In this analogy, Scoops Ahoy has a higher “Sharpe Ratio” of deliciousness per unit of business volatility. The key takeaway is that investment decisions should not solely focus on returns but also consider the associated risks. The Sharpe Ratio provides a valuable tool for comparing investment options by quantifying this risk-return tradeoff. A higher Sharpe Ratio signifies that an investment provides a better return for the level of risk assumed, allowing investors to make more informed and rational decisions. In this case, Fund A offers a slightly better risk-adjusted return compared to Fund B, making it a more attractive option for risk-averse investors.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted performance. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for both Fund A and Fund B and then compare them to determine which fund performed better on a risk-adjusted basis. For Fund A: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 10% / 15% = 0.6667 For Fund B: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 20% = 13% / 20% = 0.65 Comparing the Sharpe Ratios, Fund A has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.6667, while Fund B has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.65. Therefore, Fund A performed slightly better on a risk-adjusted basis, meaning it provided a higher return per unit of risk taken. Now, let’s consider a real-world analogy. Imagine two ice cream shops: “Scoops Ahoy” (Fund A) and “Dairy Delights” (Fund B). Scoops Ahoy offers a slightly less extravagant ice cream experience (lower return) but with a more stable and predictable business model (lower risk). Dairy Delights, on the other hand, offers incredibly elaborate and exciting ice cream creations (higher return), but their business is more volatile, depending on the latest trends and ingredient availability (higher risk). If you only looked at the pure “deliciousness” (return), Dairy Delights might seem better. However, if you consider the stability and reliability of getting your ice cream fix (risk), Scoops Ahoy provides a better overall experience because you are more likely to consistently enjoy their product. This is similar to the Sharpe Ratio, which adjusts the return for the amount of risk taken. In this analogy, Scoops Ahoy has a higher “Sharpe Ratio” of deliciousness per unit of business volatility. The key takeaway is that investment decisions should not solely focus on returns but also consider the associated risks. The Sharpe Ratio provides a valuable tool for comparing investment options by quantifying this risk-return tradeoff. A higher Sharpe Ratio signifies that an investment provides a better return for the level of risk assumed, allowing investors to make more informed and rational decisions. In this case, Fund A offers a slightly better risk-adjusted return compared to Fund B, making it a more attractive option for risk-averse investors.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
The “Northern Lights” pension fund, a UK-based scheme with a long-term investment horizon, faces upcoming liabilities of £5 million, £6 million, and £7 million over the next three years, respectively. The fund’s trustees are currently debating the optimal strategic asset allocation. They have identified four potential asset allocations with varying expected returns and standard deviations. The current yield on high-quality UK corporate bonds, used as the discount rate, is 4%. The trustees aim to select the allocation that best balances risk and return, considering the fund’s liabilities and a risk-free rate of 2%. Given the present value of liabilities and the Sharpe Ratios of the potential allocations, which asset allocation is most suitable for the “Northern Lights” pension fund based on risk-adjusted return? Allocation A: Expected Return 9%, Standard Deviation 12% Allocation B: Expected Return 7%, Standard Deviation 8% Allocation C: Expected Return 11%, Standard Deviation 15% Allocation D: Expected Return 8%, Standard Deviation 10%
Correct
To determine the optimal strategic asset allocation for the pension fund, we must consider the fund’s liability structure, risk tolerance, and investment horizon. The present value of the liabilities is calculated by discounting the future pension payments using the discount rate derived from the yield on high-quality corporate bonds. This represents the amount needed today to cover all future obligations. The asset allocation should then be determined by considering the trade-off between risk and return, aiming to maximize the expected return for a given level of risk or minimize the risk for a given level of expected return. The Sharpe Ratio is a key metric to evaluate the risk-adjusted return of different asset allocations. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted performance. Strategic asset allocation is a long-term process and requires periodic rebalancing to maintain the desired asset mix. Tactical asset allocation involves making short-term adjustments to the strategic asset allocation based on market conditions. In this scenario, we will determine the optimal strategic asset allocation by considering the pension fund’s liabilities, risk tolerance, and investment horizon. The present value of the liabilities is calculated as follows: \[PV = \sum_{t=1}^{n} \frac{CF_t}{(1+r)^t}\] Where \(CF_t\) is the cash flow at time t, r is the discount rate, and n is the number of periods. Given the liabilities of £5 million, £6 million, and £7 million over the next three years, and a discount rate of 4%, the present value of liabilities is: \[PV = \frac{5,000,000}{(1+0.04)^1} + \frac{6,000,000}{(1+0.04)^2} + \frac{7,000,000}{(1+0.04)^3}\] \[PV = \frac{5,000,000}{1.04} + \frac{6,000,000}{1.0816} + \frac{7,000,000}{1.124864}\] \[PV = 4,807,692.31 + 5,547,303.93 + 6,222,531.82\] \[PV = 16,577,528.06\] The pension fund needs approximately £16.58 million today to cover its future liabilities. Now, let’s consider the Sharpe Ratio for each asset allocation: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation For Allocation A: Sharpe Ratio = (9% – 2%) / 12% = 0.5833 For Allocation B: Sharpe Ratio = (7% – 2%) / 8% = 0.625 For Allocation C: Sharpe Ratio = (11% – 2%) / 15% = 0.6 For Allocation D: Sharpe Ratio = (8% – 2%) / 10% = 0.6 Allocation B has the highest Sharpe Ratio (0.625), indicating the best risk-adjusted return. Therefore, Allocation B is the most suitable strategic asset allocation for the pension fund.
Incorrect
To determine the optimal strategic asset allocation for the pension fund, we must consider the fund’s liability structure, risk tolerance, and investment horizon. The present value of the liabilities is calculated by discounting the future pension payments using the discount rate derived from the yield on high-quality corporate bonds. This represents the amount needed today to cover all future obligations. The asset allocation should then be determined by considering the trade-off between risk and return, aiming to maximize the expected return for a given level of risk or minimize the risk for a given level of expected return. The Sharpe Ratio is a key metric to evaluate the risk-adjusted return of different asset allocations. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted performance. Strategic asset allocation is a long-term process and requires periodic rebalancing to maintain the desired asset mix. Tactical asset allocation involves making short-term adjustments to the strategic asset allocation based on market conditions. In this scenario, we will determine the optimal strategic asset allocation by considering the pension fund’s liabilities, risk tolerance, and investment horizon. The present value of the liabilities is calculated as follows: \[PV = \sum_{t=1}^{n} \frac{CF_t}{(1+r)^t}\] Where \(CF_t\) is the cash flow at time t, r is the discount rate, and n is the number of periods. Given the liabilities of £5 million, £6 million, and £7 million over the next three years, and a discount rate of 4%, the present value of liabilities is: \[PV = \frac{5,000,000}{(1+0.04)^1} + \frac{6,000,000}{(1+0.04)^2} + \frac{7,000,000}{(1+0.04)^3}\] \[PV = \frac{5,000,000}{1.04} + \frac{6,000,000}{1.0816} + \frac{7,000,000}{1.124864}\] \[PV = 4,807,692.31 + 5,547,303.93 + 6,222,531.82\] \[PV = 16,577,528.06\] The pension fund needs approximately £16.58 million today to cover its future liabilities. Now, let’s consider the Sharpe Ratio for each asset allocation: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation For Allocation A: Sharpe Ratio = (9% – 2%) / 12% = 0.5833 For Allocation B: Sharpe Ratio = (7% – 2%) / 8% = 0.625 For Allocation C: Sharpe Ratio = (11% – 2%) / 15% = 0.6 For Allocation D: Sharpe Ratio = (8% – 2%) / 10% = 0.6 Allocation B has the highest Sharpe Ratio (0.625), indicating the best risk-adjusted return. Therefore, Allocation B is the most suitable strategic asset allocation for the pension fund.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
An investment fund manager, Amelia Stone, is constructing a portfolio using two assets: Asset A and Asset B. Asset A has an expected return of 12% and a standard deviation of 15%. Asset B has an expected return of 18% and a standard deviation of 25%. Amelia allocates 60% of the portfolio to Asset A and 40% to Asset B. The correlation coefficient between the returns of Asset A and Asset B is 0.4. The risk-free rate is 3%. Considering the information provided and adhering to the regulatory standards set forth by the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) regarding risk disclosure and performance measurement, what is the Sharpe Ratio of Amelia’s portfolio?
Correct
To determine the portfolio’s Sharpe Ratio, we first need to calculate the portfolio’s expected return and standard deviation. The expected return of the portfolio is the weighted average of the expected returns of each asset, and the portfolio variance is calculated considering the weights, variances, and covariance between the assets. Given the weights, expected returns, standard deviations, and correlation, we can calculate the portfolio’s Sharpe Ratio using the formula: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. First, calculate the expected return of the portfolio: Portfolio Return = (Weight of Asset A * Return of Asset A) + (Weight of Asset B * Return of Asset B) Portfolio Return = (0.60 * 0.12) + (0.40 * 0.18) = 0.072 + 0.072 = 0.144 or 14.4% Next, calculate the portfolio standard deviation: Portfolio Variance = (Weight of Asset A)^2 * (Standard Deviation of Asset A)^2 + (Weight of Asset B)^2 * (Standard Deviation of Asset B)^2 + 2 * (Weight of Asset A) * (Weight of Asset B) * (Standard Deviation of Asset A) * (Standard Deviation of Asset B) * Correlation Portfolio Variance = (0.60)^2 * (0.15)^2 + (0.40)^2 * (0.25)^2 + 2 * 0.60 * 0.40 * 0.15 * 0.25 * 0.4 Portfolio Variance = 0.36 * 0.0225 + 0.16 * 0.0625 + 2 * 0.60 * 0.40 * 0.15 * 0.25 * 0.4 Portfolio Variance = 0.0081 + 0.01 + 0.0036 = 0.0217 Portfolio Standard Deviation = sqrt(0.0217) ≈ 0.1473 or 14.73% Now, calculate the Sharpe Ratio: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation Sharpe Ratio = (0.144 – 0.03) / 0.1473 = 0.114 / 0.1473 ≈ 0.774 Therefore, the portfolio’s Sharpe Ratio is approximately 0.774. A Sharpe Ratio of 0.774 indicates that the portfolio provides 0.774 units of excess return per unit of total risk. In the context of fund management, this ratio helps assess the risk-adjusted performance of the portfolio. For instance, comparing this Sharpe Ratio to that of a benchmark or other portfolios would provide insights into the relative efficiency of the portfolio in generating returns for the level of risk taken. A higher Sharpe Ratio generally indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Furthermore, understanding the Sharpe Ratio can inform decisions about asset allocation and portfolio construction, helping fund managers to optimize portfolios based on their risk-return preferences and client objectives.
Incorrect
To determine the portfolio’s Sharpe Ratio, we first need to calculate the portfolio’s expected return and standard deviation. The expected return of the portfolio is the weighted average of the expected returns of each asset, and the portfolio variance is calculated considering the weights, variances, and covariance between the assets. Given the weights, expected returns, standard deviations, and correlation, we can calculate the portfolio’s Sharpe Ratio using the formula: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. First, calculate the expected return of the portfolio: Portfolio Return = (Weight of Asset A * Return of Asset A) + (Weight of Asset B * Return of Asset B) Portfolio Return = (0.60 * 0.12) + (0.40 * 0.18) = 0.072 + 0.072 = 0.144 or 14.4% Next, calculate the portfolio standard deviation: Portfolio Variance = (Weight of Asset A)^2 * (Standard Deviation of Asset A)^2 + (Weight of Asset B)^2 * (Standard Deviation of Asset B)^2 + 2 * (Weight of Asset A) * (Weight of Asset B) * (Standard Deviation of Asset A) * (Standard Deviation of Asset B) * Correlation Portfolio Variance = (0.60)^2 * (0.15)^2 + (0.40)^2 * (0.25)^2 + 2 * 0.60 * 0.40 * 0.15 * 0.25 * 0.4 Portfolio Variance = 0.36 * 0.0225 + 0.16 * 0.0625 + 2 * 0.60 * 0.40 * 0.15 * 0.25 * 0.4 Portfolio Variance = 0.0081 + 0.01 + 0.0036 = 0.0217 Portfolio Standard Deviation = sqrt(0.0217) ≈ 0.1473 or 14.73% Now, calculate the Sharpe Ratio: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation Sharpe Ratio = (0.144 – 0.03) / 0.1473 = 0.114 / 0.1473 ≈ 0.774 Therefore, the portfolio’s Sharpe Ratio is approximately 0.774. A Sharpe Ratio of 0.774 indicates that the portfolio provides 0.774 units of excess return per unit of total risk. In the context of fund management, this ratio helps assess the risk-adjusted performance of the portfolio. For instance, comparing this Sharpe Ratio to that of a benchmark or other portfolios would provide insights into the relative efficiency of the portfolio in generating returns for the level of risk taken. A higher Sharpe Ratio generally indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Furthermore, understanding the Sharpe Ratio can inform decisions about asset allocation and portfolio construction, helping fund managers to optimize portfolios based on their risk-return preferences and client objectives.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
A fund manager is evaluating two portfolios, Portfolio X and Portfolio Y, for a client with a moderate risk tolerance. Portfolio X has demonstrated an average annual return of 18% with a standard deviation of 15%. Portfolio Y has achieved an average annual return of 14% with a standard deviation of 9%. The current risk-free rate is 4%. Additionally, the fund manager uses Treynor Ratio to evaluate the risk-adjusted return, and Portfolio X has a beta of 1.2 and Portfolio Y has a beta of 0.8. Considering both Sharpe Ratio and Treynor Ratio, and the client’s moderate risk tolerance, which portfolio should the fund manager recommend and why?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is earned for each unit of total risk taken. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. In this scenario, we have two portfolios and need to determine which is superior based on the Sharpe Ratio. Portfolio A has a return of 15% and a standard deviation of 12%, while Portfolio B has a return of 12% and a standard deviation of 8%. The risk-free rate is 3%. For Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (0.15 – 0.03) / 0.12 = 0.12 / 0.12 = 1.0 For Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (0.12 – 0.03) / 0.08 = 0.09 / 0.08 = 1.125 A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. In this case, Portfolio B has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.125, while Portfolio A has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.0. Therefore, Portfolio B offers a better risk-adjusted return. Consider a unique analogy: Imagine two mountain climbers. Climber A reaches a height of 15,000 feet but faces high winds (representing high standard deviation). Climber B reaches 12,000 feet but faces calmer conditions (lower standard deviation). The Sharpe Ratio helps determine which climber is more efficient in their ascent relative to the challenges they faced. The risk-free rate is like the base camp elevation. A fund manager evaluating these climbers would prefer the one who made better use of their effort given the risks. Now, consider a more complex scenario involving fund management. Suppose a fund manager is choosing between two investment strategies. Strategy A generates higher returns during bull markets but suffers significant losses during downturns. Strategy B provides more consistent, albeit lower, returns. The Sharpe Ratio provides a standardized measure to compare these strategies, considering both the returns and the volatility associated with each. A fund manager with a risk-averse client may prefer a strategy with a higher Sharpe Ratio, even if it means sacrificing some potential upside.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is earned for each unit of total risk taken. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. In this scenario, we have two portfolios and need to determine which is superior based on the Sharpe Ratio. Portfolio A has a return of 15% and a standard deviation of 12%, while Portfolio B has a return of 12% and a standard deviation of 8%. The risk-free rate is 3%. For Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (0.15 – 0.03) / 0.12 = 0.12 / 0.12 = 1.0 For Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (0.12 – 0.03) / 0.08 = 0.09 / 0.08 = 1.125 A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. In this case, Portfolio B has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.125, while Portfolio A has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.0. Therefore, Portfolio B offers a better risk-adjusted return. Consider a unique analogy: Imagine two mountain climbers. Climber A reaches a height of 15,000 feet but faces high winds (representing high standard deviation). Climber B reaches 12,000 feet but faces calmer conditions (lower standard deviation). The Sharpe Ratio helps determine which climber is more efficient in their ascent relative to the challenges they faced. The risk-free rate is like the base camp elevation. A fund manager evaluating these climbers would prefer the one who made better use of their effort given the risks. Now, consider a more complex scenario involving fund management. Suppose a fund manager is choosing between two investment strategies. Strategy A generates higher returns during bull markets but suffers significant losses during downturns. Strategy B provides more consistent, albeit lower, returns. The Sharpe Ratio provides a standardized measure to compare these strategies, considering both the returns and the volatility associated with each. A fund manager with a risk-averse client may prefer a strategy with a higher Sharpe Ratio, even if it means sacrificing some potential upside.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Amelia Stone is evaluating the performance of her investment portfolio, managed by “Alpha Investments,” against market benchmarks. Over the past year, Amelia’s portfolio achieved a return of 12%, while the risk-free rate was 2%. The portfolio’s standard deviation was 15%, and its beta was 0.8. The market standard deviation during the same period was 10%. Amelia is using Sharpe Ratio, Treynor Ratio, and M-squared measure to evaluate the portfolio’s risk-adjusted performance. Given the information above, calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Treynor Ratio, and M-squared (M²) measure for Amelia’s portfolio. Based on these calculations, what are the approximate values for each of these measures?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It quantifies the excess return per unit of total risk in a portfolio. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation In this scenario, we are given the portfolio return, the risk-free rate, and the portfolio standard deviation. We can plug these values into the formula to calculate the Sharpe Ratio. Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 10% / 15% = 0.6667 Next, we need to calculate the Treynor ratio, which is another measure of risk-adjusted return, but it uses beta as the measure of risk instead of standard deviation. The formula for the Treynor ratio is: Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta In this scenario, we are given the portfolio return, the risk-free rate, and the portfolio beta. We can plug these values into the formula to calculate the Treynor Ratio. Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 0.8 = 10% / 0.8 = 0.125 Finally, we are required to calculate the M-squared (M²) measure, also known as Modigliani risk-adjusted performance. M² provides the same ranking as the Sharpe ratio but is expressed in percentage terms, making it more intuitive for some investors. It essentially scales the portfolio’s risk (standard deviation) to match that of the market and then compares the returns. To calculate M², we use the following formula: M² = (Sharpe Ratio of Portfolio * Standard Deviation of Market) + Risk-Free Rate Given a market standard deviation of 10%: M² = (0.6667 * 10%) + 2% = 6.667% + 2% = 8.667% Therefore, the Sharpe Ratio is approximately 0.67, the Treynor Ratio is 0.125, and the M-squared is 8.67%. Consider a scenario involving two hypothetical investment managers, Anya and Ben. Anya manages a high-growth technology fund, while Ben manages a more conservative bond fund. Anya’s fund has a higher standard deviation due to the volatile nature of tech stocks, while Ben’s fund has a lower beta, reflecting the lower systematic risk of bonds. Calculating and comparing their Sharpe, Treynor, and M-squared ratios provides a comprehensive view of their risk-adjusted performance, enabling investors to make informed decisions based on their risk tolerance and investment objectives. Another example involves comparing a fund manager’s performance against a benchmark. If a fund manager consistently outperforms the benchmark in terms of raw returns, but also exhibits higher volatility, the Sharpe Ratio can help determine whether the excess returns are sufficient to compensate for the increased risk. Similarly, the Treynor Ratio can assess whether the manager’s performance is due to superior stock selection or simply taking on more systematic risk. The M-squared measure allows for a direct comparison of risk-adjusted returns in percentage terms, making it easier to understand the magnitude of the outperformance relative to the market.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It quantifies the excess return per unit of total risk in a portfolio. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation In this scenario, we are given the portfolio return, the risk-free rate, and the portfolio standard deviation. We can plug these values into the formula to calculate the Sharpe Ratio. Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 10% / 15% = 0.6667 Next, we need to calculate the Treynor ratio, which is another measure of risk-adjusted return, but it uses beta as the measure of risk instead of standard deviation. The formula for the Treynor ratio is: Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta In this scenario, we are given the portfolio return, the risk-free rate, and the portfolio beta. We can plug these values into the formula to calculate the Treynor Ratio. Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 0.8 = 10% / 0.8 = 0.125 Finally, we are required to calculate the M-squared (M²) measure, also known as Modigliani risk-adjusted performance. M² provides the same ranking as the Sharpe ratio but is expressed in percentage terms, making it more intuitive for some investors. It essentially scales the portfolio’s risk (standard deviation) to match that of the market and then compares the returns. To calculate M², we use the following formula: M² = (Sharpe Ratio of Portfolio * Standard Deviation of Market) + Risk-Free Rate Given a market standard deviation of 10%: M² = (0.6667 * 10%) + 2% = 6.667% + 2% = 8.667% Therefore, the Sharpe Ratio is approximately 0.67, the Treynor Ratio is 0.125, and the M-squared is 8.67%. Consider a scenario involving two hypothetical investment managers, Anya and Ben. Anya manages a high-growth technology fund, while Ben manages a more conservative bond fund. Anya’s fund has a higher standard deviation due to the volatile nature of tech stocks, while Ben’s fund has a lower beta, reflecting the lower systematic risk of bonds. Calculating and comparing their Sharpe, Treynor, and M-squared ratios provides a comprehensive view of their risk-adjusted performance, enabling investors to make informed decisions based on their risk tolerance and investment objectives. Another example involves comparing a fund manager’s performance against a benchmark. If a fund manager consistently outperforms the benchmark in terms of raw returns, but also exhibits higher volatility, the Sharpe Ratio can help determine whether the excess returns are sufficient to compensate for the increased risk. Similarly, the Treynor Ratio can assess whether the manager’s performance is due to superior stock selection or simply taking on more systematic risk. The M-squared measure allows for a direct comparison of risk-adjusted returns in percentage terms, making it easier to understand the magnitude of the outperformance relative to the market.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Two fund managers, Anya and Ben, are presenting their fund’s performance to a board of trustees overseeing a pension fund. Anya’s fund, Fund A, generated an average return of 12% with a standard deviation of 15%. Ben’s fund, Fund B, generated an average return of 18% with a standard deviation of 25%. The risk-free rate during the period was 2%. The trustees are particularly concerned about the risk-adjusted return of each fund, as they have a fiduciary duty to ensure the pension fund’s assets are managed prudently and in the best interests of the beneficiaries, adhering to the principles outlined in the Pensions Act 2004. Based on the Sharpe Ratio, which fund performed better on a risk-adjusted basis, and by how much did its Sharpe Ratio exceed the other fund’s Sharpe Ratio?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It indicates how much excess return an investor is receiving for the extra volatility they endure for holding a riskier asset. A higher Sharpe Ratio is generally better, indicating a greater return for the level of risk taken. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: Sharpe Ratio = (Rp – Rf) / σp Where: Rp = Portfolio Return Rf = Risk-Free Rate σp = Portfolio Standard Deviation In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for both Fund A and Fund B and then determine the difference. Fund A: Rp = 12% = 0.12 Rf = 2% = 0.02 σp = 15% = 0.15 Sharpe Ratio A = (0.12 – 0.02) / 0.15 = 0.10 / 0.15 = 0.6667 Fund B: Rp = 18% = 0.18 Rf = 2% = 0.02 σp = 25% = 0.25 Sharpe Ratio B = (0.18 – 0.02) / 0.25 = 0.16 / 0.25 = 0.64 Difference in Sharpe Ratios = Sharpe Ratio A – Sharpe Ratio B = 0.6667 – 0.64 = 0.0267 Therefore, Fund A has a Sharpe Ratio that is approximately 0.0267 higher than Fund B. Consider a scenario where two chefs, Chef Ramsay and Chef Oliver, are judged on their signature dishes. Chef Ramsay’s dish has a higher overall rating (return) but also a higher level of spice (risk). Chef Oliver’s dish has a slightly lower rating but is less spicy. The Sharpe Ratio helps determine which chef provides a better dining experience relative to the “spice level” diners must endure. In this analogy, the risk-free rate could be considered the baseline expectation of a restaurant meal – something consistently palatable but not exceptional. Another analogy is comparing two investment advisors. Advisor X consistently generates moderate returns with low volatility, while Advisor Y generates higher returns but with significant ups and downs. The Sharpe Ratio helps an investor determine which advisor is more efficient at generating returns for the level of emotional rollercoaster (risk) the investor must experience. This is particularly important for risk-averse investors who value consistency over potentially higher but less predictable gains. A final analogy: Imagine two hikers climbing different mountains. One mountain is shorter but has a very steep, rocky path. The other mountain is taller but has a gentler, more even slope. The Sharpe Ratio helps determine which hike is more “efficient” in terms of elevation gain (return) per unit of effort (risk) expended. The risk-free rate here is equivalent to walking on flat ground.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It indicates how much excess return an investor is receiving for the extra volatility they endure for holding a riskier asset. A higher Sharpe Ratio is generally better, indicating a greater return for the level of risk taken. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: Sharpe Ratio = (Rp – Rf) / σp Where: Rp = Portfolio Return Rf = Risk-Free Rate σp = Portfolio Standard Deviation In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for both Fund A and Fund B and then determine the difference. Fund A: Rp = 12% = 0.12 Rf = 2% = 0.02 σp = 15% = 0.15 Sharpe Ratio A = (0.12 – 0.02) / 0.15 = 0.10 / 0.15 = 0.6667 Fund B: Rp = 18% = 0.18 Rf = 2% = 0.02 σp = 25% = 0.25 Sharpe Ratio B = (0.18 – 0.02) / 0.25 = 0.16 / 0.25 = 0.64 Difference in Sharpe Ratios = Sharpe Ratio A – Sharpe Ratio B = 0.6667 – 0.64 = 0.0267 Therefore, Fund A has a Sharpe Ratio that is approximately 0.0267 higher than Fund B. Consider a scenario where two chefs, Chef Ramsay and Chef Oliver, are judged on their signature dishes. Chef Ramsay’s dish has a higher overall rating (return) but also a higher level of spice (risk). Chef Oliver’s dish has a slightly lower rating but is less spicy. The Sharpe Ratio helps determine which chef provides a better dining experience relative to the “spice level” diners must endure. In this analogy, the risk-free rate could be considered the baseline expectation of a restaurant meal – something consistently palatable but not exceptional. Another analogy is comparing two investment advisors. Advisor X consistently generates moderate returns with low volatility, while Advisor Y generates higher returns but with significant ups and downs. The Sharpe Ratio helps an investor determine which advisor is more efficient at generating returns for the level of emotional rollercoaster (risk) the investor must experience. This is particularly important for risk-averse investors who value consistency over potentially higher but less predictable gains. A final analogy: Imagine two hikers climbing different mountains. One mountain is shorter but has a very steep, rocky path. The other mountain is taller but has a gentler, more even slope. The Sharpe Ratio helps determine which hike is more “efficient” in terms of elevation gain (return) per unit of effort (risk) expended. The risk-free rate here is equivalent to walking on flat ground.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
A fund manager, Amelia Stone, manages a diversified investment fund with a total return of 15% over the past year. The risk-free rate during this period was 2%, and the market return, represented by the FTSE 100 index, was 10%. Amelia’s fund has a beta of 1.2 and a standard deviation of 12%. Amelia is presenting her fund’s performance to a board of trustees, who are particularly interested in understanding the risk-adjusted returns. The trustees are keen to assess the fund’s performance relative to both the market and the level of risk taken. Specifically, they want to know the fund’s Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio to compare Amelia’s fund with other potential investments and benchmarks. Calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio for Amelia’s fund based on the provided information. What are the implications of these ratios for the fund’s overall performance and risk management strategy?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as \(\frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\), where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. It is calculated as \(Alpha = R_p – [R_f + \beta(R_m – R_f)]\), where \(R_m\) is the market return and \(\beta\) is the portfolio’s beta. Beta measures a portfolio’s systematic risk or volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility. The Treynor Ratio is calculated as \(\frac{R_p – R_f}{\beta_p}\), where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\beta_p\) is the portfolio’s beta. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio for the fund. 1. Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{15\% – 2\%}{12\%} = \frac{13\%}{12\%} = 1.0833\) 2. Alpha = \(15\% – [2\% + 1.2(10\% – 2\%)] = 15\% – [2\% + 1.2(8\%)] = 15\% – [2\% + 9.6\%] = 15\% – 11.6\% = 3.4\%\) 3. Treynor Ratio = \(\frac{15\% – 2\%}{1.2} = \frac{13\%}{1.2} = 10.833\%\) Therefore, the Sharpe Ratio is 1.0833, Alpha is 3.4%, and the Treynor Ratio is 10.833%.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as \(\frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\), where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. It is calculated as \(Alpha = R_p – [R_f + \beta(R_m – R_f)]\), where \(R_m\) is the market return and \(\beta\) is the portfolio’s beta. Beta measures a portfolio’s systematic risk or volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility. The Treynor Ratio is calculated as \(\frac{R_p – R_f}{\beta_p}\), where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\beta_p\) is the portfolio’s beta. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio for the fund. 1. Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{15\% – 2\%}{12\%} = \frac{13\%}{12\%} = 1.0833\) 2. Alpha = \(15\% – [2\% + 1.2(10\% – 2\%)] = 15\% – [2\% + 1.2(8\%)] = 15\% – [2\% + 9.6\%] = 15\% – 11.6\% = 3.4\%\) 3. Treynor Ratio = \(\frac{15\% – 2\%}{1.2} = \frac{13\%}{1.2} = 10.833\%\) Therefore, the Sharpe Ratio is 1.0833, Alpha is 3.4%, and the Treynor Ratio is 10.833%.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Two fund managers, Amelia and Ben, are presenting their portfolio performance to a client. Amelia’s portfolio, Portfolio A, achieved a return of 15% with a standard deviation of 10% and a beta of 1.2. Ben’s portfolio, Portfolio B, achieved a return of 12% with a standard deviation of 8% and a beta of 0.8. The risk-free rate is 2%. The client, a sophisticated investor named Charles, is trying to determine which portfolio offers superior risk-adjusted returns, considering both total risk and systematic risk. Charles is particularly concerned about market volatility and its potential impact on his investments. He asks for a comprehensive analysis of the Sharpe and Treynor ratios for both portfolios to make an informed decision, understanding that Amelia’s portfolio has higher volatility but potentially higher returns, while Ben’s portfolio is less volatile but offers slightly lower returns. Which of the following statements accurately compares the risk-adjusted performance of Portfolio A and Portfolio B based on their Sharpe and Treynor ratios?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It calculates the excess return per unit of total risk. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio relative to its benchmark, adjusted for risk. It measures the manager’s skill in generating returns above what would be expected given the portfolio’s beta and the market return. Beta measures the volatility of a portfolio relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market. A beta greater than 1 suggests the portfolio is more volatile than the market, while a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using systematic risk (beta) as the risk measure. The formula is: Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. The information ratio (IR) measures a portfolio’s active return relative to the risk of that active return. It is calculated as the portfolio’s alpha divided by its tracking error. Tracking error measures the standard deviation of the difference between the portfolio’s return and the benchmark’s return. In this case, we are comparing Sharpe and Treynor ratios, which are both risk-adjusted performance measures. The Sharpe ratio uses total risk (standard deviation), while the Treynor ratio uses systematic risk (beta). The portfolio with the higher Sharpe ratio has better risk-adjusted performance considering total risk. The portfolio with the higher Treynor ratio has better risk-adjusted performance considering systematic risk. Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 10% = 1.3, Treynor Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 1.2 = 10.83% Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 8% = 1.25, Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 0.8 = 12.5% Portfolio A has a higher Sharpe ratio, indicating better risk-adjusted performance when considering total risk. Portfolio B has a higher Treynor ratio, indicating better risk-adjusted performance when considering systematic risk.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It calculates the excess return per unit of total risk. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio relative to its benchmark, adjusted for risk. It measures the manager’s skill in generating returns above what would be expected given the portfolio’s beta and the market return. Beta measures the volatility of a portfolio relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market. A beta greater than 1 suggests the portfolio is more volatile than the market, while a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using systematic risk (beta) as the risk measure. The formula is: Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. The information ratio (IR) measures a portfolio’s active return relative to the risk of that active return. It is calculated as the portfolio’s alpha divided by its tracking error. Tracking error measures the standard deviation of the difference between the portfolio’s return and the benchmark’s return. In this case, we are comparing Sharpe and Treynor ratios, which are both risk-adjusted performance measures. The Sharpe ratio uses total risk (standard deviation), while the Treynor ratio uses systematic risk (beta). The portfolio with the higher Sharpe ratio has better risk-adjusted performance considering total risk. The portfolio with the higher Treynor ratio has better risk-adjusted performance considering systematic risk. Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 10% = 1.3, Treynor Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 1.2 = 10.83% Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 8% = 1.25, Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 0.8 = 12.5% Portfolio A has a higher Sharpe ratio, indicating better risk-adjusted performance when considering total risk. Portfolio B has a higher Treynor ratio, indicating better risk-adjusted performance when considering systematic risk.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Two fund managers, Anya and Ben, are being evaluated based on their performance over the past year. Anya’s portfolio had a return of 15% with a standard deviation of 10%, while Ben’s portfolio returned 18% with a standard deviation of 15%. The risk-free rate is 3%. Anya’s portfolio has an alpha of 3.5% while Ben’s portfolio has an alpha of 5%. Considering both risk-adjusted returns and excess returns relative to a benchmark, which fund manager demonstrated superior performance, and why? Assume the benchmark return used for calculating alpha is the same for both managers. The Treynor ratio for Anya is 0.09 and for Ben is 0.08.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. It measures the value added by the portfolio manager. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. In this scenario, we need to compare the risk-adjusted performance of two fund managers, considering both their Sharpe Ratio and Alpha. Fund Manager A has a higher Sharpe Ratio, indicating better risk-adjusted performance relative to total risk. Fund Manager B has a higher Alpha, indicating better excess return relative to the benchmark. The Treynor Ratio is used to assess risk-adjusted return using beta, but is not the primary focus in this question. To determine which manager performed better, we must consider both risk-adjusted return (Sharpe Ratio) and excess return (Alpha). A higher Sharpe Ratio suggests better performance given the total risk taken, while a higher Alpha suggests better performance relative to the benchmark. For Fund Manager A: Sharpe Ratio = 1.1 Alpha = 3% For Fund Manager B: Sharpe Ratio = 0.9 Alpha = 5% Fund Manager A has a better risk-adjusted return (Sharpe Ratio), while Fund Manager B has a higher excess return (Alpha). The question asks for the manager with the better overall performance. The higher Sharpe Ratio of Fund Manager A suggests better risk-adjusted performance, even though Fund Manager B has a higher Alpha. Therefore, Fund Manager A is considered to have performed better.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. It measures the value added by the portfolio manager. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. In this scenario, we need to compare the risk-adjusted performance of two fund managers, considering both their Sharpe Ratio and Alpha. Fund Manager A has a higher Sharpe Ratio, indicating better risk-adjusted performance relative to total risk. Fund Manager B has a higher Alpha, indicating better excess return relative to the benchmark. The Treynor Ratio is used to assess risk-adjusted return using beta, but is not the primary focus in this question. To determine which manager performed better, we must consider both risk-adjusted return (Sharpe Ratio) and excess return (Alpha). A higher Sharpe Ratio suggests better performance given the total risk taken, while a higher Alpha suggests better performance relative to the benchmark. For Fund Manager A: Sharpe Ratio = 1.1 Alpha = 3% For Fund Manager B: Sharpe Ratio = 0.9 Alpha = 5% Fund Manager A has a better risk-adjusted return (Sharpe Ratio), while Fund Manager B has a higher excess return (Alpha). The question asks for the manager with the better overall performance. The higher Sharpe Ratio of Fund Manager A suggests better risk-adjusted performance, even though Fund Manager B has a higher Alpha. Therefore, Fund Manager A is considered to have performed better.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A fund manager at “Northern Lights Capital” is constructing a strategic asset allocation for a high-net-worth individual with a moderate risk tolerance and a 15-year investment horizon. The manager is considering three asset classes: Equities, Bonds, and Real Estate. The expected returns, standard deviations, and correlations between the asset classes are as follows: * Equities: Expected Return = 12%, Standard Deviation = 15% * Bonds: Expected Return = 5%, Standard Deviation = 7% * Real Estate: Expected Return = 8%, Standard Deviation = 10% The correlations between the asset classes are: * Correlation (Equities, Bonds) = 0.2 * Correlation (Equities, Real Estate) = 0.3 * Correlation (Bonds, Real Estate) = 0.4 The risk-free rate is 2%. Based on the Sharpe Ratio, which of the following asset allocations would be the most appropriate for the client? (Calculations must be shown to justify the answer.)
Correct
To determine the optimal strategic asset allocation, we must consider the investor’s risk tolerance, investment horizon, and financial goals. The Sharpe Ratio is a key metric for evaluating risk-adjusted return. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] where \( R_p \) is the portfolio return, \( R_f \) is the risk-free rate, and \( \sigma_p \) is the portfolio standard deviation. In this scenario, we have three asset classes: Equities, Bonds, and Real Estate. We need to calculate the portfolio return and standard deviation for each proposed allocation. Portfolio Return Calculation: \[ R_p = (w_1 \times R_1) + (w_2 \times R_2) + (w_3 \times R_3) \] where \( w_i \) is the weight of asset \( i \) and \( R_i \) is the return of asset \( i \). Portfolio Standard Deviation Calculation: This is more complex due to the need to account for correlations between assets. The formula for the standard deviation of a three-asset portfolio is: \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{w_1^2\sigma_1^2 + w_2^2\sigma_2^2 + w_3^2\sigma_3^2 + 2w_1w_2\rho_{1,2}\sigma_1\sigma_2 + 2w_1w_3\rho_{1,3}\sigma_1\sigma_3 + 2w_2w_3\rho_{2,3}\sigma_2\sigma_3} \] where \( w_i \) is the weight of asset \( i \), \( \sigma_i \) is the standard deviation of asset \( i \), and \( \rho_{i,j} \) is the correlation between assets \( i \) and \( j \). For Allocation A (50% Equities, 30% Bonds, 20% Real Estate): \[ R_p = (0.50 \times 0.12) + (0.30 \times 0.05) + (0.20 \times 0.08) = 0.06 + 0.015 + 0.016 = 0.091 = 9.1\% \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.5)^2(0.15)^2 + (0.3)^2(0.07)^2 + (0.2)^2(0.10)^2 + 2(0.5)(0.3)(0.2)(0.15)(0.07) + 2(0.5)(0.2)(0.3)(0.15)(0.10) + 2(0.3)(0.2)(0.4)(0.07)(0.10)} \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{0.005625 + 0.000441 + 0.0004 + 0.00063 + 0.0009 + 0.000336} = \sqrt{0.008332} \approx 0.0913 = 9.13\% \] \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.091 – 0.02}{0.0913} = \frac{0.071}{0.0913} \approx 0.777 \] For Allocation B (30% Equities, 50% Bonds, 20% Real Estate): \[ R_p = (0.30 \times 0.12) + (0.50 \times 0.05) + (0.20 \times 0.08) = 0.036 + 0.025 + 0.016 = 0.077 = 7.7\% \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.3)^2(0.15)^2 + (0.5)^2(0.07)^2 + (0.2)^2(0.10)^2 + 2(0.3)(0.5)(0.2)(0.15)(0.07) + 2(0.3)(0.2)(0.4)(0.15)(0.10) + 2(0.5)(0.2)(0.4)(0.07)(0.10)} \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{0.002025 + 0.001225 + 0.0004 + 0.000315 + 0.00036 + 0.00028} = \sqrt{0.004605} \approx 0.0678 = 6.78\% \] \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.077 – 0.02}{0.0678} = \frac{0.057}{0.0678} \approx 0.841 \] For Allocation C (20% Equities, 30% Bonds, 50% Real Estate): \[ R_p = (0.20 \times 0.12) + (0.30 \times 0.05) + (0.50 \times 0.08) = 0.024 + 0.015 + 0.04 = 0.079 = 7.9\% \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.2)^2(0.15)^2 + (0.3)^2(0.07)^2 + (0.5)^2(0.10)^2 + 2(0.2)(0.3)(0.4)(0.15)(0.07) + 2(0.2)(0.5)(0.3)(0.15)(0.10) + 2(0.3)(0.5)(0.4)(0.07)(0.10)} \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{0.0009 + 0.000441 + 0.0025 + 0.000126 + 0.00045 + 0.00021} = \sqrt{0.004627} \approx 0.0680 = 6.80\% \] \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.079 – 0.02}{0.0680} = \frac{0.059}{0.0680} \approx 0.868 \] For Allocation D (40% Equities, 40% Bonds, 20% Real Estate): \[ R_p = (0.40 \times 0.12) + (0.40 \times 0.05) + (0.20 \times 0.08) = 0.048 + 0.02 + 0.016 = 0.084 = 8.4\% \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.4)^2(0.15)^2 + (0.4)^2(0.07)^2 + (0.2)^2(0.10)^2 + 2(0.4)(0.4)(0.3)(0.15)(0.07) + 2(0.4)(0.2)(0.3)(0.15)(0.10) + 2(0.4)(0.2)(0.4)(0.07)(0.10)} \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{0.0036 + 0.000784 + 0.0004 + 0.000504 + 0.00072 + 0.000448} = \sqrt{0.006456} \approx 0.0804 = 8.04\% \] \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.084 – 0.02}{0.0804} = \frac{0.064}{0.0804} \approx 0.796 \] Comparing the Sharpe Ratios, Allocation C (20% Equities, 30% Bonds, 50% Real Estate) has the highest Sharpe Ratio (0.868), indicating the best risk-adjusted return. This analysis uniquely combines portfolio return, standard deviation, and correlation calculations to determine the optimal asset allocation based on the Sharpe Ratio. The example illustrates how different asset allocations impact risk-adjusted returns, providing a practical application of portfolio theory. The correlations between assets significantly influence the portfolio’s overall risk, making it crucial to consider them in the allocation process.
Incorrect
To determine the optimal strategic asset allocation, we must consider the investor’s risk tolerance, investment horizon, and financial goals. The Sharpe Ratio is a key metric for evaluating risk-adjusted return. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] where \( R_p \) is the portfolio return, \( R_f \) is the risk-free rate, and \( \sigma_p \) is the portfolio standard deviation. In this scenario, we have three asset classes: Equities, Bonds, and Real Estate. We need to calculate the portfolio return and standard deviation for each proposed allocation. Portfolio Return Calculation: \[ R_p = (w_1 \times R_1) + (w_2 \times R_2) + (w_3 \times R_3) \] where \( w_i \) is the weight of asset \( i \) and \( R_i \) is the return of asset \( i \). Portfolio Standard Deviation Calculation: This is more complex due to the need to account for correlations between assets. The formula for the standard deviation of a three-asset portfolio is: \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{w_1^2\sigma_1^2 + w_2^2\sigma_2^2 + w_3^2\sigma_3^2 + 2w_1w_2\rho_{1,2}\sigma_1\sigma_2 + 2w_1w_3\rho_{1,3}\sigma_1\sigma_3 + 2w_2w_3\rho_{2,3}\sigma_2\sigma_3} \] where \( w_i \) is the weight of asset \( i \), \( \sigma_i \) is the standard deviation of asset \( i \), and \( \rho_{i,j} \) is the correlation between assets \( i \) and \( j \). For Allocation A (50% Equities, 30% Bonds, 20% Real Estate): \[ R_p = (0.50 \times 0.12) + (0.30 \times 0.05) + (0.20 \times 0.08) = 0.06 + 0.015 + 0.016 = 0.091 = 9.1\% \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.5)^2(0.15)^2 + (0.3)^2(0.07)^2 + (0.2)^2(0.10)^2 + 2(0.5)(0.3)(0.2)(0.15)(0.07) + 2(0.5)(0.2)(0.3)(0.15)(0.10) + 2(0.3)(0.2)(0.4)(0.07)(0.10)} \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{0.005625 + 0.000441 + 0.0004 + 0.00063 + 0.0009 + 0.000336} = \sqrt{0.008332} \approx 0.0913 = 9.13\% \] \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.091 – 0.02}{0.0913} = \frac{0.071}{0.0913} \approx 0.777 \] For Allocation B (30% Equities, 50% Bonds, 20% Real Estate): \[ R_p = (0.30 \times 0.12) + (0.50 \times 0.05) + (0.20 \times 0.08) = 0.036 + 0.025 + 0.016 = 0.077 = 7.7\% \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.3)^2(0.15)^2 + (0.5)^2(0.07)^2 + (0.2)^2(0.10)^2 + 2(0.3)(0.5)(0.2)(0.15)(0.07) + 2(0.3)(0.2)(0.4)(0.15)(0.10) + 2(0.5)(0.2)(0.4)(0.07)(0.10)} \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{0.002025 + 0.001225 + 0.0004 + 0.000315 + 0.00036 + 0.00028} = \sqrt{0.004605} \approx 0.0678 = 6.78\% \] \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.077 – 0.02}{0.0678} = \frac{0.057}{0.0678} \approx 0.841 \] For Allocation C (20% Equities, 30% Bonds, 50% Real Estate): \[ R_p = (0.20 \times 0.12) + (0.30 \times 0.05) + (0.50 \times 0.08) = 0.024 + 0.015 + 0.04 = 0.079 = 7.9\% \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.2)^2(0.15)^2 + (0.3)^2(0.07)^2 + (0.5)^2(0.10)^2 + 2(0.2)(0.3)(0.4)(0.15)(0.07) + 2(0.2)(0.5)(0.3)(0.15)(0.10) + 2(0.3)(0.5)(0.4)(0.07)(0.10)} \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{0.0009 + 0.000441 + 0.0025 + 0.000126 + 0.00045 + 0.00021} = \sqrt{0.004627} \approx 0.0680 = 6.80\% \] \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.079 – 0.02}{0.0680} = \frac{0.059}{0.0680} \approx 0.868 \] For Allocation D (40% Equities, 40% Bonds, 20% Real Estate): \[ R_p = (0.40 \times 0.12) + (0.40 \times 0.05) + (0.20 \times 0.08) = 0.048 + 0.02 + 0.016 = 0.084 = 8.4\% \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.4)^2(0.15)^2 + (0.4)^2(0.07)^2 + (0.2)^2(0.10)^2 + 2(0.4)(0.4)(0.3)(0.15)(0.07) + 2(0.4)(0.2)(0.3)(0.15)(0.10) + 2(0.4)(0.2)(0.4)(0.07)(0.10)} \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{0.0036 + 0.000784 + 0.0004 + 0.000504 + 0.00072 + 0.000448} = \sqrt{0.006456} \approx 0.0804 = 8.04\% \] \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.084 – 0.02}{0.0804} = \frac{0.064}{0.0804} \approx 0.796 \] Comparing the Sharpe Ratios, Allocation C (20% Equities, 30% Bonds, 50% Real Estate) has the highest Sharpe Ratio (0.868), indicating the best risk-adjusted return. This analysis uniquely combines portfolio return, standard deviation, and correlation calculations to determine the optimal asset allocation based on the Sharpe Ratio. The example illustrates how different asset allocations impact risk-adjusted returns, providing a practical application of portfolio theory. The correlations between assets significantly influence the portfolio’s overall risk, making it crucial to consider them in the allocation process.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Zenith Fund Management is evaluating the performance of its flagship portfolio, “Zenith Growth,” against a benchmark market index. Over the past year, “Zenith Growth” achieved a total return of 15% with a standard deviation of 12%. During the same period, the risk-free rate was 2%, and the market index returned 10%. Calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio for “Zenith Growth.” Based on these calculations, which of the following statements BEST describes the risk-adjusted performance and relative performance of “Zenith Growth”? Assume the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) holds true. A client, Ms. Eleanor Vance, is particularly concerned about downside risk and wants a portfolio with a high Sharpe Ratio. Considering the calculated metrics, how would you explain the portfolio’s suitability to Ms. Vance, and what additional information or analysis might you provide to address her concerns about downside risk specifically, bearing in mind the UK regulatory requirements for client communication and suitability?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio relative to its benchmark. Beta measures a portfolio’s systematic risk or volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates that the portfolio’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates that the portfolio is more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates that the portfolio is less volatile than the market. The Treynor Ratio is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. It measures the risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk. Let’s calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio for Portfolio Zenith: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation = (15% – 2%) / 12% = 13% / 12% = 1.0833 To calculate Alpha, we use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM): Expected Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) 15% = 2% + Beta * (10% – 2%) 13% = Beta * 8% Beta = 13% / 8% = 1.625 Expected Return = 2% + 1.625 * (10% – 2%) = 2% + 1.625 * 8% = 2% + 13% = 15% Alpha = Portfolio Return – Expected Return = 15% – 15% = 0% Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta = (15% – 2%) / 1.625 = 13% / 1.625 = 0.08 or 8% Therefore, the Sharpe Ratio is approximately 1.08, Alpha is 0%, Beta is 1.625, and the Treynor Ratio is 8%. Consider a different portfolio, ‘Nova’, with a return of 18%, standard deviation of 15%, and a beta of 0.8. The risk-free rate remains at 2%. Sharpe Ratio for Nova = (18% – 2%) / 15% = 16% / 15% = 1.0667 Using CAPM to find Alpha: Expected Return = 2% + 0.8 * (10% – 2%) = 2% + 0.8 * 8% = 2% + 6.4% = 8.4% Alpha for Nova = 18% – 8.4% = 9.6% Treynor Ratio for Nova = (18% – 2%) / 0.8 = 16% / 0.8 = 0.2 or 20% In this example, Nova has a slightly lower Sharpe Ratio (1.07) than Zenith (1.08), indicating slightly less risk-adjusted return based on total risk. However, Nova has a significantly higher Alpha (9.6%) than Zenith (0%), suggesting Nova has outperformed its expected return based on its beta and the market return. Nova also has a higher Treynor Ratio (20%) compared to Zenith (8%), indicating better risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio relative to its benchmark. Beta measures a portfolio’s systematic risk or volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates that the portfolio’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates that the portfolio is more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates that the portfolio is less volatile than the market. The Treynor Ratio is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. It measures the risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk. Let’s calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio for Portfolio Zenith: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation = (15% – 2%) / 12% = 13% / 12% = 1.0833 To calculate Alpha, we use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM): Expected Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) 15% = 2% + Beta * (10% – 2%) 13% = Beta * 8% Beta = 13% / 8% = 1.625 Expected Return = 2% + 1.625 * (10% – 2%) = 2% + 1.625 * 8% = 2% + 13% = 15% Alpha = Portfolio Return – Expected Return = 15% – 15% = 0% Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta = (15% – 2%) / 1.625 = 13% / 1.625 = 0.08 or 8% Therefore, the Sharpe Ratio is approximately 1.08, Alpha is 0%, Beta is 1.625, and the Treynor Ratio is 8%. Consider a different portfolio, ‘Nova’, with a return of 18%, standard deviation of 15%, and a beta of 0.8. The risk-free rate remains at 2%. Sharpe Ratio for Nova = (18% – 2%) / 15% = 16% / 15% = 1.0667 Using CAPM to find Alpha: Expected Return = 2% + 0.8 * (10% – 2%) = 2% + 0.8 * 8% = 2% + 6.4% = 8.4% Alpha for Nova = 18% – 8.4% = 9.6% Treynor Ratio for Nova = (18% – 2%) / 0.8 = 16% / 0.8 = 0.2 or 20% In this example, Nova has a slightly lower Sharpe Ratio (1.07) than Zenith (1.08), indicating slightly less risk-adjusted return based on total risk. However, Nova has a significantly higher Alpha (9.6%) than Zenith (0%), suggesting Nova has outperformed its expected return based on its beta and the market return. Nova also has a higher Treynor Ratio (20%) compared to Zenith (8%), indicating better risk-adjusted return relative to systematic risk.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A high-net-worth individual, Ms. Eleanor Vance, allocates £250,000 to establish a charitable foundation that will operate as a perpetuity. The foundation’s mission is to provide annual grants of £12,000 to local artists. Her financial advisor estimates that the foundation’s investments can consistently generate a 6% annual return. After the first year of operation, Ms. Vance reviews the foundation’s accounts. Assuming the foundation distributed the full £12,000 grant amount as planned and the investments performed exactly as projected, how much capital remains within the foundation, excluding any investment gains or losses beyond the initial 6% return, that is not directly required to sustain the perpetuity? Consider that the perpetuity requires a specific principal amount to generate the annual £12,000 grant at a 6% return.
Correct
To solve this problem, we need to calculate the present value of the perpetuity and then determine how much of the initial investment remains after the first year’s distribution. First, calculate the present value (PV) of the perpetuity using the formula: \[PV = \frac{C}{r}\] Where \(C\) is the annual cash flow and \(r\) is the discount rate. In this case, \(C = £12,000\) and \(r = 0.06\). \[PV = \frac{12,000}{0.06} = £200,000\] This means that to fund a perpetuity paying £12,000 per year with a 6% required return, an initial investment of £200,000 is needed. Next, we determine the amount remaining after the first year. The investor initially allocated £250,000, but only £200,000 was needed to fund the perpetuity. Therefore, the amount remaining after the first year is the initial allocation minus the present value of the perpetuity: \[Remaining = Initial\,Allocation – PV\] \[Remaining = £250,000 – £200,000 = £50,000\] This £50,000 represents the excess capital that was not needed to fund the perpetuity. It’s crucial to understand that this excess capital is separate from the perpetuity itself and does not affect the perpetuity’s ability to continue paying out £12,000 annually, assuming the 6% return is maintained. Analogy: Imagine you want to create a self-sustaining garden that produces £12,000 worth of vegetables each year. You determine that you need to invest £200,000 in the right equipment and infrastructure (irrigation, greenhouse, high-quality soil). However, you have £250,000 available. You invest the necessary £200,000 and have £50,000 left over. This leftover £50,000 doesn’t change the fact that your garden can still produce £12,000 worth of vegetables annually. The extra money is just extra; it could be used for other projects, saved, or invested elsewhere. The perpetuity is funded and will continue as long as the underlying investment performs as expected. The key takeaway is to distinguish between the capital required to sustain the perpetuity and any additional capital the investor might have allocated initially. The perpetuity’s value is determined solely by its cash flows and the required rate of return, not by the investor’s total assets.
Incorrect
To solve this problem, we need to calculate the present value of the perpetuity and then determine how much of the initial investment remains after the first year’s distribution. First, calculate the present value (PV) of the perpetuity using the formula: \[PV = \frac{C}{r}\] Where \(C\) is the annual cash flow and \(r\) is the discount rate. In this case, \(C = £12,000\) and \(r = 0.06\). \[PV = \frac{12,000}{0.06} = £200,000\] This means that to fund a perpetuity paying £12,000 per year with a 6% required return, an initial investment of £200,000 is needed. Next, we determine the amount remaining after the first year. The investor initially allocated £250,000, but only £200,000 was needed to fund the perpetuity. Therefore, the amount remaining after the first year is the initial allocation minus the present value of the perpetuity: \[Remaining = Initial\,Allocation – PV\] \[Remaining = £250,000 – £200,000 = £50,000\] This £50,000 represents the excess capital that was not needed to fund the perpetuity. It’s crucial to understand that this excess capital is separate from the perpetuity itself and does not affect the perpetuity’s ability to continue paying out £12,000 annually, assuming the 6% return is maintained. Analogy: Imagine you want to create a self-sustaining garden that produces £12,000 worth of vegetables each year. You determine that you need to invest £200,000 in the right equipment and infrastructure (irrigation, greenhouse, high-quality soil). However, you have £250,000 available. You invest the necessary £200,000 and have £50,000 left over. This leftover £50,000 doesn’t change the fact that your garden can still produce £12,000 worth of vegetables annually. The extra money is just extra; it could be used for other projects, saved, or invested elsewhere. The perpetuity is funded and will continue as long as the underlying investment performs as expected. The key takeaway is to distinguish between the capital required to sustain the perpetuity and any additional capital the investor might have allocated initially. The perpetuity’s value is determined solely by its cash flows and the required rate of return, not by the investor’s total assets.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
A fund manager, Emily, is evaluating her portfolio’s performance. Her current portfolio has a return of 12% and a volatility of 15%. The current risk-free rate is 2%. Emily is concerned about upcoming market changes. Economic analysts predict that the risk-free rate will increase by 0.5% and the portfolio volatility will increase by 2% due to increased market uncertainty. To maintain the same Sharpe Ratio, by what percentage must Emily increase her portfolio’s return? Assume that Emily’s portfolio follows all regulatory guidelines as outlined by the FCA and that she is acting in accordance with her fiduciary duty to her clients, as stipulated by CISI ethical standards.
Correct
To solve this problem, we need to understand the concept of the Sharpe Ratio and how it is affected by changes in risk-free rate and portfolio volatility. The Sharpe Ratio is calculated as \[\frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\], where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio’s standard deviation (volatility). First, calculate the initial Sharpe Ratio: \[\frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.15} = \frac{0.10}{0.15} = 0.6667\] Next, calculate the new risk-free rate: 2.0% + 0.5% = 2.5% or 0.025. Then, calculate the new portfolio volatility: 15% + 2% = 17% or 0.17. Now, calculate the new portfolio return that would maintain the original Sharpe Ratio: Let \(R_{p_{new}}\) be the new portfolio return. We want: \[\frac{R_{p_{new}} – 0.025}{0.17} = 0.6667\] \[R_{p_{new}} – 0.025 = 0.6667 \times 0.17\] \[R_{p_{new}} – 0.025 = 0.1133\] \[R_{p_{new}} = 0.1133 + 0.025\] \[R_{p_{new}} = 0.1383\] So, the new portfolio return must be 13.83% to maintain the original Sharpe Ratio. Now, calculate the required increase in portfolio return: \[0.1383 – 0.12 = 0.0183\] Therefore, the portfolio return must increase by 1.83%. Analogy: Imagine the Sharpe Ratio as the “efficiency” of a cyclist. The portfolio return is the cyclist’s speed, the risk-free rate is the headwind, and the volatility is the unevenness of the road. If the headwind increases (risk-free rate rises) and the road becomes more uneven (volatility increases), the cyclist needs to pedal harder (increase portfolio return) to maintain the same efficiency (Sharpe Ratio). Another example: Imagine a chef trying to maintain the same level of deliciousness (Sharpe Ratio) in a dish. If the cost of ingredients increases (risk-free rate rises) and the kitchen equipment becomes less reliable (volatility increases), the chef needs to use better cooking techniques and higher quality ingredients (increase portfolio return) to keep the dish as delicious as before.
Incorrect
To solve this problem, we need to understand the concept of the Sharpe Ratio and how it is affected by changes in risk-free rate and portfolio volatility. The Sharpe Ratio is calculated as \[\frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\], where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio’s standard deviation (volatility). First, calculate the initial Sharpe Ratio: \[\frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.15} = \frac{0.10}{0.15} = 0.6667\] Next, calculate the new risk-free rate: 2.0% + 0.5% = 2.5% or 0.025. Then, calculate the new portfolio volatility: 15% + 2% = 17% or 0.17. Now, calculate the new portfolio return that would maintain the original Sharpe Ratio: Let \(R_{p_{new}}\) be the new portfolio return. We want: \[\frac{R_{p_{new}} – 0.025}{0.17} = 0.6667\] \[R_{p_{new}} – 0.025 = 0.6667 \times 0.17\] \[R_{p_{new}} – 0.025 = 0.1133\] \[R_{p_{new}} = 0.1133 + 0.025\] \[R_{p_{new}} = 0.1383\] So, the new portfolio return must be 13.83% to maintain the original Sharpe Ratio. Now, calculate the required increase in portfolio return: \[0.1383 – 0.12 = 0.0183\] Therefore, the portfolio return must increase by 1.83%. Analogy: Imagine the Sharpe Ratio as the “efficiency” of a cyclist. The portfolio return is the cyclist’s speed, the risk-free rate is the headwind, and the volatility is the unevenness of the road. If the headwind increases (risk-free rate rises) and the road becomes more uneven (volatility increases), the cyclist needs to pedal harder (increase portfolio return) to maintain the same efficiency (Sharpe Ratio). Another example: Imagine a chef trying to maintain the same level of deliciousness (Sharpe Ratio) in a dish. If the cost of ingredients increases (risk-free rate rises) and the kitchen equipment becomes less reliable (volatility increases), the chef needs to use better cooking techniques and higher quality ingredients (increase portfolio return) to keep the dish as delicious as before.