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CISI – Derivatives Level 3 (Capital Markets Programme) Quiz 05 is completed –
Principles of OTC Derivatives :
Other Swap types On completion, the candidate should:
know the common equity swap instruments and their relationship to other markets and products: • total return • volatility • variance • dividend swaps
know the common interest rate swap features and their relationships to other markets: • amortising • accreting • rollercoaster • forward start
know the basic purpose of commodity swaps
know the purpose of inflation swaps
Structured Products On completion, the candidate should:
understand how structured products utilise embedded derivatives to achieve a risk/return profile: • convertible bonds • index linked notes • capital protected products • callable / puttable bonds
Options On completion, the candidate should:
know the common OTC option products and features: • European, American, Asian • barrier products • lookbacks and variants
understand the basic mechanisms of option pricing and the relationship with the underlying cash prices together with the significance of contributing factors: • structure • valuation inputs
know the basic requirements of, and process for, premium payment: • when paid • credit exposure • the collateral process
Principles of Clearing :
Definition and Purpose of Clearing On completion, the candidate should:
understand the purpose of clearing and the function of novation: • mutual offset system • principal to principal • broker’s position
understand the risks mitigated through the clearing process: • settlement risk • counterparty risk
understand the role played by the clearing house in the clearing process: • margin process • clearing house relationship with members in settlement • transfer of payments
understand the principles and backing arrangements in place in the event of a member default: • novation • guarantee of performance of the contract • default fund • members’ contributions • principal to buyer and seller • control of funds to clearing members’ accounts • requirement for members to use an approved bank
understand the relationship between clearing members and nonclearing members: • clearing versus non-clearing member • use of general clearing members to clear trades
understand the services offered by prime brokers as they relate to derivatives: • borrowing and lending securities • financing positions • providing custody and safekeeping of assets • clearing and settling trades • administering onshore and offshore funds • corporate actions • capital introductions • risk management
understand how OTC products can be centrally cleared: • eligibility and credit standing of counterparts • constraints placed upon contract terms • advantages and uses of centralised clearing of OTC products
The Principles of Margin On completion, the candidate should:
understand the differences between initial and variation margin: • marking to market • offsetting long and short positions • when paid
know the means by which exchanges establish settlement prices: • what are settlement prices • closing ranges / prices
understand the nature and use of offsets for spread/spot month margining: • purpose of offsets • what is spot month margin
• purpose of spot month margins • purpose of spread margins
understand why the clearing house might call intra-day margin: • purpose of intra-day margin • when is intra-day margin paid
know methods of initial margining including SPAN: • use of delta • use of SPAN
know methods of margining for centrally cleared OTC products and their implications: • how exposure is calculated • what margins are applied • how and when margin payments are made
understand how a firm deals with margin payments for its own positions and for its clients’ positions through its books: • use of house accounts • use of client segregated accounts • use of client non-segregated / pooled accounts
understand the difference between the clearing house’s margin and that of the broker and the collection / payment process: • amounts paid by clearing member and its clients • flow of margin
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Mr. Miller is exploring different types of equity swaps. Which equity swap instrument involves an arrangement where an investor receives the total return on an underlying asset, including both capital appreciation and any income generated?
Correct
Explanation:
A Total Return Swap (TRS) allows an investor to receive the total economic performance of an underlying asset, including capital appreciation and income (such as dividends). It provides exposure to the overall return without owning the asset.Incorrect
Explanation:
A Total Return Swap (TRS) allows an investor to receive the total economic performance of an underlying asset, including capital appreciation and income (such as dividends). It provides exposure to the overall return without owning the asset. -
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Ms. Harris is considering interest rate swaps and wants to understand a feature that involves the gradual reduction of the principal amount over time. Which interest rate swap feature aligns with her description?
Correct
Explanation:
In an amortising interest rate swap, the principal amount gradually decreases over time. This feature is designed to match the changing needs or obligations of the parties involved in the swap.Incorrect
Explanation:
In an amortising interest rate swap, the principal amount gradually decreases over time. This feature is designed to match the changing needs or obligations of the parties involved in the swap. -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Mr. Turner is interested in managing the risk associated with fluctuations in commodity prices. What is the basic purpose of a commodity swap?
Correct
Explanation:
The primary purpose of a commodity swap is to hedge against commodity price risk. This allows market participants to manage and mitigate the impact of price fluctuations in commodities.Incorrect
Explanation:
The primary purpose of a commodity swap is to hedge against commodity price risk. This allows market participants to manage and mitigate the impact of price fluctuations in commodities. -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Mrs. Stewart is reviewing different types of swaps and comes across the term “inflation swap.” What is the primary purpose of an inflation swap?
Correct
Explanation:
An inflation swap is designed to transfer or manage the risk associated with inflation. It allows parties to protect themselves against the impact of inflation on their financial positions.Incorrect
Explanation:
An inflation swap is designed to transfer or manage the risk associated with inflation. It allows parties to protect themselves against the impact of inflation on their financial positions. -
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Mr. Carter is assessing various equity-related derivatives and wants to understand a swap that specifically focuses on the dividends paid by an underlying asset. What type of swap aligns with Mr. Carter’s interest?
Correct
Explanation:
A Dividend Swap is an equity derivative that allows investors to speculate on or hedge against changes in the dividends paid by an underlying asset. It specifically focuses on the income component of the total return.Incorrect
Explanation:
A Dividend Swap is an equity derivative that allows investors to speculate on or hedge against changes in the dividends paid by an underlying asset. It specifically focuses on the income component of the total return. -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Mr. Anderson is considering an investment in a financial instrument that provides both downside protection of the principal and potential participation in market gains. What type of structured product aligns with his preferences?
Correct
Explanation:
An index-linked note is a structured product that utilizes embedded derivatives to provide downside protection of the principal while offering the potential for participation in market gains. The returns are often linked to the performance of an underlying index.Incorrect
Explanation:
An index-linked note is a structured product that utilizes embedded derivatives to provide downside protection of the principal while offering the potential for participation in market gains. The returns are often linked to the performance of an underlying index. -
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Ms. Martinez is exploring investment options and wants to understand a structured product that typically involves an embedded option giving the issuer the right to redeem the security before maturity. What type of structured product meets her description?
Correct
Explanation:
A Callable Bond is a structured product with an embedded option that grants the issuer the right to redeem the security before its maturity date. This feature allows issuers to take advantage of favorable market conditions.Incorrect
Explanation:
A Callable Bond is a structured product with an embedded option that grants the issuer the right to redeem the security before its maturity date. This feature allows issuers to take advantage of favorable market conditions. -
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Mr. Robinson is interested in a structured product that offers the potential for equity participation with protection against a significant market downturn. What type of structured product aligns with his objectives?
Correct
Explanation:
A Capital-Protected Product is a structured investment that provides principal protection while allowing investors to participate in potential equity gains. It typically combines a fixed-income component with an embedded derivative for equity exposure.Incorrect
Explanation:
A Capital-Protected Product is a structured investment that provides principal protection while allowing investors to participate in potential equity gains. It typically combines a fixed-income component with an embedded derivative for equity exposure. -
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Mrs. Turner is evaluating options for raising capital and is considering a debt instrument that can convert into a specified number of common shares. What type of structured product is she contemplating?
Correct
Explanation:
A Convertible Bond is a debt instrument that allows the bondholder to convert the bond into a specified number of common shares. It provides the flexibility for investors to participate in potential equity appreciation.Incorrect
Explanation:
A Convertible Bond is a debt instrument that allows the bondholder to convert the bond into a specified number of common shares. It provides the flexibility for investors to participate in potential equity appreciation. -
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Mr. Carter is intrigued by exotic option features and wants to explore a type of option that activates or deactivates based on the underlying asset’s price reaching a specific barrier level. What type of option aligns with Mr. Carter’s interest?
Correct
Explanation:
A Barrier Option is an option with a feature that activates or deactivates based on the underlying asset’s price reaching a predetermined barrier level. It provides additional flexibility and risk management compared to traditional options.Incorrect
Explanation:
A Barrier Option is an option with a feature that activates or deactivates based on the underlying asset’s price reaching a predetermined barrier level. It provides additional flexibility and risk management compared to traditional options. -
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Mr. Smith, a market participant, wants to comprehend the process of novation and its role in the clearing mechanism. Which of the following best describes novation?
Correct
Explanation:
Novation is the process where the clearing house becomes the counterparty to both the buyer and the seller. This helps mitigate counterparty risk and ensures the smooth settlement of trades.Incorrect
Explanation:
Novation is the process where the clearing house becomes the counterparty to both the buyer and the seller. This helps mitigate counterparty risk and ensures the smooth settlement of trades. -
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Ms. Davis is concerned about the risks associated with the clearing process. What specific risk does clearing aim to mitigate?
Correct
Explanation:
Clearing primarily mitigates credit risk by interposing a central counterparty (clearing house) between the buyer and seller, reducing the risk of default by either party.Incorrect
Explanation:
Clearing primarily mitigates credit risk by interposing a central counterparty (clearing house) between the buyer and seller, reducing the risk of default by either party. -
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
In the context of clearing, what is the purpose of the mutual offset system?
Correct
Explanation:
The mutual offset system allows clearing houses to net long and short positions of market participants, reducing the overall risk exposure and enhancing efficiency.Incorrect
Explanation:
The mutual offset system allows clearing houses to net long and short positions of market participants, reducing the overall risk exposure and enhancing efficiency. -
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Mr. Thompson is curious about the margin process in clearing. What role does margin play in the clearing mechanism?
Correct
Explanation:
Margin requirements are imposed to ensure that market participants have sufficient collateral to cover potential losses, thereby enhancing the financial integrity of the clearing process.Incorrect
Explanation:
Margin requirements are imposed to ensure that market participants have sufficient collateral to cover potential losses, thereby enhancing the financial integrity of the clearing process. -
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Ms. White, a member of a clearing house, wants to understand the relationship between the clearing house and its members in settlement. How would you describe this relationship?
Correct
Explanation:
In settlement, the clearing house acts as the principal to each member, streamlining the process and providing a central point for trade settlement.Incorrect
Explanation:
In settlement, the clearing house acts as the principal to each member, streamlining the process and providing a central point for trade settlement. -
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Mr. Anderson is a clearing member and is concerned about the principles in place in the event of a member default. What is the primary purpose of the default fund?
Correct
Explanation:
The default fund serves as a financial cushion to guarantee the performance of derivatives contracts in case of a clearing member default, providing stability to the clearing house.Incorrect
Explanation:
The default fund serves as a financial cushion to guarantee the performance of derivatives contracts in case of a clearing member default, providing stability to the clearing house. -
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Ms. Turner, a non-clearing member, wants to understand the relationship between clearing members and non-clearing members. What differentiates a clearing member from a non-clearing member?
Correct
Explanation:
Clearing members have a direct relationship with the clearing house and can access novation services. Non-clearing members, on the other hand, may use general clearing members to clear trades.Incorrect
Explanation:
Clearing members have a direct relationship with the clearing house and can access novation services. Non-clearing members, on the other hand, may use general clearing members to clear trades. -
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Mr. Harris, a market participant, is considering utilizing the services of a prime broker for his derivative transactions. What is a primary function of prime brokers related to derivatives?
Correct
Explanation:
Prime brokers provide various services, including administering onshore and offshore funds, offering financing, and acting as intermediaries in clearing and settling trades.Incorrect
Explanation:
Prime brokers provide various services, including administering onshore and offshore funds, offering financing, and acting as intermediaries in clearing and settling trades. -
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Ms. Foster is interested in understanding how OTC products can be centrally cleared. What factors determine the eligibility of counterparts for central clearing?
Correct
Explanation:
To be centrally cleared, OTC products require counterparts to meet specific criteria, including credit standing and eligibility, ensuring a secure clearing process.Incorrect
Explanation:
To be centrally cleared, OTC products require counterparts to meet specific criteria, including credit standing and eligibility, ensuring a secure clearing process. -
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Mr. Reed is considering becoming a clearing member and wants to know the advantage of centralizing the clearing of OTC products. What is a key advantage of central clearing?
Correct
Explanation:
Central clearing of OTC products provides the advantage of mitigating counterparty risk and enhancing transparency in the derivatives market, contributing to overall market stability.Incorrect
Explanation:
Central clearing of OTC products provides the advantage of mitigating counterparty risk and enhancing transparency in the derivatives market, contributing to overall market stability. -
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Mr. Thompson, a derivatives trader, is curious about the differences between initial and variation margin. What defines the primary distinction between initial and variation margin?
Correct
Explanation:
Initial margin is designed to cover potential future exposure, safeguarding against potential losses. Variation margin, on the other hand, addresses the current market-to-market changes in the value of the contract, ensuring the clearing house remains adequately collateralized.Incorrect
Explanation:
Initial margin is designed to cover potential future exposure, safeguarding against potential losses. Variation margin, on the other hand, addresses the current market-to-market changes in the value of the contract, ensuring the clearing house remains adequately collateralized. -
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Ms. Rodriguez is preparing a report on how exchanges establish settlement prices. What is the purpose of closing ranges or prices in determining settlement prices?
Correct
Explanation:
Closing ranges or prices are used to determine settlement prices, ensuring a fair and transparent process for marking contracts to market. This helps maintain the integrity of the derivatives market.Incorrect
Explanation:
Closing ranges or prices are used to determine settlement prices, ensuring a fair and transparent process for marking contracts to market. This helps maintain the integrity of the derivatives market. -
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Mr. Davis is curious about the purpose of offsets for spread/spot month margining. What is the primary purpose of offsets in the context of margining?
Correct
Explanation:
Offsets for spread/spot month margining serve the purpose of simplifying the calculation of margin requirements by allowing certain positions to offset each other. This helps streamline the margining process.Incorrect
Explanation:
Offsets for spread/spot month margining serve the purpose of simplifying the calculation of margin requirements by allowing certain positions to offset each other. This helps streamline the margining process. -
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Ms. Stewart, a risk manager, is reviewing spot month margins. What characterizes spot month margins?
Correct
Explanation:
Spot month margins are applied to contracts as they approach expiration, ensuring that there is adequate collateralization during the critical period when contracts are most susceptible to market fluctuations.Incorrect
Explanation:
Spot month margins are applied to contracts as they approach expiration, ensuring that there is adequate collateralization during the critical period when contracts are most susceptible to market fluctuations. -
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Mr. Miller is interested in the purpose of spread margins. What is the primary purpose of spread margins in the context of margining?
Correct
Explanation:
Spread margins serve the purpose of encouraging trading in multiple contract months by providing margin offsets for certain positions. This facilitates a diversified and dynamic trading environment.Incorrect
Explanation:
Spread margins serve the purpose of encouraging trading in multiple contract months by providing margin offsets for certain positions. This facilitates a diversified and dynamic trading environment. -
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Mr. Anderson, a derivatives trader, is puzzled about the reasons for the clearing house to call intra-day margin. What is the primary purpose of intra-day margin, and when is it typically paid?
Correct
Explanation:
Intra-day margin serves the purpose of supporting liquidity needs and is only called upon in case of a margin deficit, ensuring the clearing house remains well-capitalized and capable of managing potential risks efficiently.Incorrect
Explanation:
Intra-day margin serves the purpose of supporting liquidity needs and is only called upon in case of a margin deficit, ensuring the clearing house remains well-capitalized and capable of managing potential risks efficiently. -
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Ms. Thompson, a risk analyst, is studying methods of initial margining, including SPAN. How does SPAN (Standard Portfolio Analysis of Risk) contribute to the calculation of initial margin?
Correct
Explanation:
SPAN employs advanced algorithms to estimate potential future losses, taking into account various market scenarios and ensuring a comprehensive analysis of risk exposure for initial margin determination.Incorrect
Explanation:
SPAN employs advanced algorithms to estimate potential future losses, taking into account various market scenarios and ensuring a comprehensive analysis of risk exposure for initial margin determination. -
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Mr. Carter, a derivatives broker, is interested in methods of margining for centrally cleared OTC products. How is exposure calculated, and what implications do these methods have?
Correct
Explanation:
The exposure for centrally cleared OTC products is calculated by considering potential future losses, influencing the margin requirements. This approach ensures adequate collateralization against potential risks.Incorrect
Explanation:
The exposure for centrally cleared OTC products is calculated by considering potential future losses, influencing the margin requirements. This approach ensures adequate collateralization against potential risks. -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Ms. Adams, a financial analyst, wants to understand how a firm deals with margin payments for its positions and client positions. Which method is commonly used by firms to segregate client funds?
Correct
Explanation:
Firms commonly use client segregated accounts to ensure a clear distinction between their own funds and client funds, promoting transparency and protecting client assets.Incorrect
Explanation:
Firms commonly use client segregated accounts to ensure a clear distinction between their own funds and client funds, promoting transparency and protecting client assets. -
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Mr. Harris, a compliance officer, seeks clarification on the difference between the clearing house’s margin and that of the broker. What is a key distinction, and how does the collection/payment process typically flow?
Correct
Explanation:
The clearing house’s margin primarily addresses systemic risk, while the broker’s margin focuses on individual client risk. The collection/payment process involves separate flows for each, contributing to the overall risk management structure.Incorrect
Explanation:
The clearing house’s margin primarily addresses systemic risk, while the broker’s margin focuses on individual client risk. The collection/payment process involves separate flows for each, contributing to the overall risk management structure.