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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
A fund manager, Amelia Stone, is evaluating two potential investment portfolios, Portfolio Alpha and Portfolio Beta, for a client with a moderate risk tolerance. Portfolio Alpha has demonstrated an average annual return of 12% with a standard deviation of 8%. Portfolio Beta, on the other hand, has achieved an average annual return of 15% with a standard deviation of 11%. The current risk-free rate is 3%. Amelia needs to determine which portfolio offers a better risk-adjusted return for her client, considering the client’s risk preferences and the regulatory requirements outlined by the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) regarding suitability and best execution. Based solely on the Sharpe Ratio, which portfolio should Amelia recommend and why?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It quantifies how much excess return an investor receives for each unit of risk taken. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where: \( R_p \) = Portfolio Return \( R_f \) = Risk-Free Rate \( \sigma_p \) = Portfolio Standard Deviation In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for two different portfolios, Portfolio Alpha and Portfolio Beta, and then compare them to determine which one offers a better risk-adjusted return. We are given the portfolio returns, standard deviations, and the risk-free rate. For Portfolio Alpha: \( R_p = 12\% \) or 0.12 \( R_f = 3\% \) or 0.03 \( \sigma_p = 8\% \) or 0.08 \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio}_\text{Alpha} = \frac{0.12 – 0.03}{0.08} = \frac{0.09}{0.08} = 1.125 \] For Portfolio Beta: \( R_p = 15\% \) or 0.15 \( R_f = 3\% \) or 0.03 \( \sigma_p = 11\% \) or 0.11 \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio}_\text{Beta} = \frac{0.15 – 0.03}{0.11} = \frac{0.12}{0.11} \approx 1.091 \] Comparing the Sharpe Ratios: Sharpe Ratio of Alpha = 1.125 Sharpe Ratio of Beta = 1.091 Since 1.125 > 1.091, Portfolio Alpha has a higher Sharpe Ratio, indicating a better risk-adjusted return compared to Portfolio Beta. A higher Sharpe Ratio implies that the portfolio is generating more excess return for the same amount of risk. In the context of fund management, this is a crucial metric for evaluating the performance of different investment strategies. For instance, consider two fund managers presenting their results to a client. Manager A achieved a 12% return with 8% volatility, while Manager B achieved a 15% return with 11% volatility. At first glance, Manager B’s higher return might seem more appealing. However, by calculating and comparing the Sharpe Ratios, it becomes clear that Manager A provided a superior risk-adjusted return. This highlights the importance of not only looking at returns but also considering the risk taken to achieve those returns. The Sharpe Ratio provides a standardized way to compare portfolios with different risk and return profiles, ensuring that investment decisions are based on a comprehensive understanding of the risk-return tradeoff.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It quantifies how much excess return an investor receives for each unit of risk taken. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where: \( R_p \) = Portfolio Return \( R_f \) = Risk-Free Rate \( \sigma_p \) = Portfolio Standard Deviation In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for two different portfolios, Portfolio Alpha and Portfolio Beta, and then compare them to determine which one offers a better risk-adjusted return. We are given the portfolio returns, standard deviations, and the risk-free rate. For Portfolio Alpha: \( R_p = 12\% \) or 0.12 \( R_f = 3\% \) or 0.03 \( \sigma_p = 8\% \) or 0.08 \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio}_\text{Alpha} = \frac{0.12 – 0.03}{0.08} = \frac{0.09}{0.08} = 1.125 \] For Portfolio Beta: \( R_p = 15\% \) or 0.15 \( R_f = 3\% \) or 0.03 \( \sigma_p = 11\% \) or 0.11 \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio}_\text{Beta} = \frac{0.15 – 0.03}{0.11} = \frac{0.12}{0.11} \approx 1.091 \] Comparing the Sharpe Ratios: Sharpe Ratio of Alpha = 1.125 Sharpe Ratio of Beta = 1.091 Since 1.125 > 1.091, Portfolio Alpha has a higher Sharpe Ratio, indicating a better risk-adjusted return compared to Portfolio Beta. A higher Sharpe Ratio implies that the portfolio is generating more excess return for the same amount of risk. In the context of fund management, this is a crucial metric for evaluating the performance of different investment strategies. For instance, consider two fund managers presenting their results to a client. Manager A achieved a 12% return with 8% volatility, while Manager B achieved a 15% return with 11% volatility. At first glance, Manager B’s higher return might seem more appealing. However, by calculating and comparing the Sharpe Ratios, it becomes clear that Manager A provided a superior risk-adjusted return. This highlights the importance of not only looking at returns but also considering the risk taken to achieve those returns. The Sharpe Ratio provides a standardized way to compare portfolios with different risk and return profiles, ensuring that investment decisions are based on a comprehensive understanding of the risk-return tradeoff.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Amelia Stone is evaluating the performance of the “GlobalTech Innovators Fund,” a technology-focused investment fund. The fund has delivered an annual return of 12%. The risk-free rate is currently 2%, and the market return, represented by the FTSE All-World Index, is 10%. Stone also discovers that the fund has a standard deviation of 15% and a beta of 1.2. Stone needs to assess the fund’s risk-adjusted performance and determine whether the fund’s returns are primarily due to market movements or the fund manager’s skill. Based on this information, calculate the Sharpe Ratio and Alpha of the GlobalTech Innovators Fund, and explain the implications of the fund’s beta in the context of the current market conditions.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha measures the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. A positive alpha indicates the investment has outperformed the benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Beta measures the systematic risk or volatility of an investment relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the investment’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates the investment is more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates the investment is less volatile than the market. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Beta to determine the portfolio’s performance and risk characteristics. First, calculate the Sharpe Ratio: (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.67. Next, calculate Alpha. Alpha is the difference between the portfolio’s actual return and its expected return based on its beta. Expected return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) = 2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%) = 11.6%. Alpha = Portfolio Return – Expected Return = 12% – 11.6% = 0.4%. The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is received for each unit of risk taken. For example, imagine two portfolios with the same return of 10%. Portfolio A has a standard deviation of 5%, while Portfolio B has a standard deviation of 10%. Assuming a risk-free rate of 2%, Portfolio A’s Sharpe Ratio is (10%-2%)/5% = 1.6, while Portfolio B’s Sharpe Ratio is (10%-2%)/10% = 0.8. Portfolio A is more efficient at generating returns for the risk taken. Alpha, on the other hand, indicates the value added by the fund manager’s skill. A positive alpha means the manager has outperformed expectations given the level of risk. Consider a fund with a beta of 0.8. If the market rises by 10%, this fund is expected to rise by 8%. If it actually rises by 9%, the alpha is 1%. Beta measures systematic risk. For example, a utility stock might have a beta of 0.5, indicating lower volatility compared to the market, while a tech stock might have a beta of 1.5, indicating higher volatility.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha measures the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. A positive alpha indicates the investment has outperformed the benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Beta measures the systematic risk or volatility of an investment relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the investment’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates the investment is more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates the investment is less volatile than the market. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Beta to determine the portfolio’s performance and risk characteristics. First, calculate the Sharpe Ratio: (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.67. Next, calculate Alpha. Alpha is the difference between the portfolio’s actual return and its expected return based on its beta. Expected return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) = 2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%) = 11.6%. Alpha = Portfolio Return – Expected Return = 12% – 11.6% = 0.4%. The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is received for each unit of risk taken. For example, imagine two portfolios with the same return of 10%. Portfolio A has a standard deviation of 5%, while Portfolio B has a standard deviation of 10%. Assuming a risk-free rate of 2%, Portfolio A’s Sharpe Ratio is (10%-2%)/5% = 1.6, while Portfolio B’s Sharpe Ratio is (10%-2%)/10% = 0.8. Portfolio A is more efficient at generating returns for the risk taken. Alpha, on the other hand, indicates the value added by the fund manager’s skill. A positive alpha means the manager has outperformed expectations given the level of risk. Consider a fund with a beta of 0.8. If the market rises by 10%, this fund is expected to rise by 8%. If it actually rises by 9%, the alpha is 1%. Beta measures systematic risk. For example, a utility stock might have a beta of 0.5, indicating lower volatility compared to the market, while a tech stock might have a beta of 1.5, indicating higher volatility.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
A pension fund is evaluating the performance of three fund managers (A, B, and C) over the past year. The fund’s investment policy mandates a focus on risk-adjusted returns. The market return for the year was 8%, and the risk-free rate was 2%. Here’s a summary of their performance: Fund Manager A: Portfolio Return = 12%, Portfolio Standard Deviation = 15%, Beta = 1.2 Fund Manager B: Portfolio Return = 9%, Portfolio Standard Deviation = 10%, Beta = 0.8 Fund Manager C: Portfolio Return = 15%, Portfolio Standard Deviation = 20%, Beta = 1.5 Considering the fund’s objective of maximizing risk-adjusted returns and the provided performance metrics, which fund manager delivered the best performance based on both Sharpe Ratio and Alpha, and what does this suggest about their investment strategy?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as \(\frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\), where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio relative to its benchmark, adjusted for risk. It’s often interpreted as the value the fund manager adds through active management. Beta measures a portfolio’s sensitivity to market movements. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market; a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 suggests lower volatility. In this scenario, to determine which fund manager performed best, we need to consider both risk and return. Fund Manager A generated a higher absolute return, but also took on more risk, as evidenced by the higher beta. Fund Manager B had a lower return but also lower risk. Fund Manager C had the highest return but its beta is also the highest. We will first calculate the Sharpe ratio for all fund managers. Fund Manager A Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.15} = 0.667\) Fund Manager B Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.09 – 0.02}{0.10} = 0.7\) Fund Manager C Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.15 – 0.02}{0.20} = 0.65\) Next, we will calculate Alpha for all fund managers. The market return is 8% and risk free rate is 2%. Fund Manager A Alpha = 12% – [2% + 1.2(8% – 2%)] = 12% – [2% + 7.2%] = 2.8% Fund Manager B Alpha = 9% – [2% + 0.8(8% – 2%)] = 9% – [2% + 4.8%] = 2.2% Fund Manager C Alpha = 15% – [2% + 1.5(8% – 2%)] = 15% – [2% + 9%] = 4% Based on the Sharpe Ratio, Fund Manager B has the highest risk-adjusted return. Based on the Alpha, Fund Manager C has the highest risk-adjusted return.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as \(\frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\), where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio relative to its benchmark, adjusted for risk. It’s often interpreted as the value the fund manager adds through active management. Beta measures a portfolio’s sensitivity to market movements. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market; a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 suggests lower volatility. In this scenario, to determine which fund manager performed best, we need to consider both risk and return. Fund Manager A generated a higher absolute return, but also took on more risk, as evidenced by the higher beta. Fund Manager B had a lower return but also lower risk. Fund Manager C had the highest return but its beta is also the highest. We will first calculate the Sharpe ratio for all fund managers. Fund Manager A Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.15} = 0.667\) Fund Manager B Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.09 – 0.02}{0.10} = 0.7\) Fund Manager C Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.15 – 0.02}{0.20} = 0.65\) Next, we will calculate Alpha for all fund managers. The market return is 8% and risk free rate is 2%. Fund Manager A Alpha = 12% – [2% + 1.2(8% – 2%)] = 12% – [2% + 7.2%] = 2.8% Fund Manager B Alpha = 9% – [2% + 0.8(8% – 2%)] = 9% – [2% + 4.8%] = 2.2% Fund Manager C Alpha = 15% – [2% + 1.5(8% – 2%)] = 15% – [2% + 9%] = 4% Based on the Sharpe Ratio, Fund Manager B has the highest risk-adjusted return. Based on the Alpha, Fund Manager C has the highest risk-adjusted return.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
A newly established UK-based fund, “Nova Growth,” is being evaluated by a pension fund for potential investment. Nova Growth focuses on emerging technology companies and has delivered the following performance over the past year: an annual return of 12%, with a standard deviation of 15%. The current risk-free rate, as indicated by UK Gilts, is 3%. The fund’s beta, calculated against the FTSE 100, is 0.8. The pension fund’s investment committee is particularly concerned about risk-adjusted returns and the fund’s sensitivity to market movements. They want to understand Nova Growth’s performance relative to its risk profile before making a final decision. Considering the provided data, what are the Sharpe Ratio and Treynor Ratio for the Nova Growth fund, and how should these ratios be interpreted in the context of the pension fund’s risk concerns?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as the difference between the portfolio’s return and the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Rp – Rf) / σp, where Rp is the portfolio return, Rf is the risk-free rate, and σp is the portfolio’s standard deviation. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. It measures the portfolio manager’s ability to generate returns above the benchmark, adjusted for risk. A positive alpha indicates outperformance, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Alpha is often used in conjunction with beta to assess a portfolio’s performance. Beta measures the systematic risk of a portfolio relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates that the portfolio’s price will move in line with the market. A beta greater than 1 suggests that the portfolio is more volatile than the market, while a beta less than 1 indicates that the portfolio is less volatile. Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. It is calculated as the difference between the portfolio’s return and the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s beta. The formula is: Treynor Ratio = (Rp – Rf) / βp, where Rp is the portfolio return, Rf is the risk-free rate, and βp is the portfolio’s beta. In this scenario, we have a fund with the following characteristics: Annual Return (Rp) = 12%, Risk-Free Rate (Rf) = 3%, Standard Deviation (σp) = 15%, Beta (βp) = 0.8. Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 15% = 0.6. Treynor Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 0.8 = 11.25%.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as the difference between the portfolio’s return and the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Rp – Rf) / σp, where Rp is the portfolio return, Rf is the risk-free rate, and σp is the portfolio’s standard deviation. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. It measures the portfolio manager’s ability to generate returns above the benchmark, adjusted for risk. A positive alpha indicates outperformance, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Alpha is often used in conjunction with beta to assess a portfolio’s performance. Beta measures the systematic risk of a portfolio relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates that the portfolio’s price will move in line with the market. A beta greater than 1 suggests that the portfolio is more volatile than the market, while a beta less than 1 indicates that the portfolio is less volatile. Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. It is calculated as the difference between the portfolio’s return and the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s beta. The formula is: Treynor Ratio = (Rp – Rf) / βp, where Rp is the portfolio return, Rf is the risk-free rate, and βp is the portfolio’s beta. In this scenario, we have a fund with the following characteristics: Annual Return (Rp) = 12%, Risk-Free Rate (Rf) = 3%, Standard Deviation (σp) = 15%, Beta (βp) = 0.8. Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 15% = 0.6. Treynor Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 0.8 = 11.25%.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Penrose Investments is evaluating three different investment portfolios (A, B, and C) for a client. The client’s primary objective is to maximize risk-adjusted returns while also achieving significant excess returns relative to the market. The risk-free rate is currently 3%, and the market return is 10%. Portfolio A has a return of 15%, a standard deviation of 12%, and a beta of 0.8. Portfolio B has a return of 18%, a standard deviation of 15%, and a beta of 1.2. Portfolio C has a return of 12%, a standard deviation of 8%, and a beta of 0.6. Considering the client’s objectives and using the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio, which portfolio should Penrose Investments recommend, and why? The client also prioritizes consistency of returns relative to systematic risk.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha measures the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. A positive alpha suggests the investment outperformed the benchmark, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. The Treynor Ratio is similar to the Sharpe Ratio but uses beta (systematic risk) instead of standard deviation (total risk). It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. Beta measures a portfolio’s sensitivity to market movements. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 suggests lower volatility. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio to determine which portfolio offers the best risk-adjusted performance and excess return. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation Alpha = Portfolio Return – [Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate)] Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta For Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 3%) / 12% = 1 Alpha = 15% – [3% + 0.8 * (10% – 3%)] = 15% – (3% + 5.6%) = 6.4% Treynor Ratio = (15% – 3%) / 0.8 = 15% For Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (18% – 3%) / 15% = 1 Alpha = 18% – [3% + 1.2 * (10% – 3%)] = 18% – (3% + 8.4%) = 6.6% Treynor Ratio = (18% – 3%) / 1.2 = 12.5% For Portfolio C: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 8% = 1.125 Alpha = 12% – [3% + 0.6 * (10% – 3%)] = 12% – (3% + 4.2%) = 4.8% Treynor Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 0.6 = 15% Based on these calculations, Portfolio C has the highest Sharpe Ratio (1.125), indicating the best risk-adjusted return. Portfolio B has the highest alpha (6.6%), indicating the greatest excess return relative to its risk. Portfolio A and C has the highest Treynor ratio (15%) indicating the better return per unit of systematic risk.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha measures the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. A positive alpha suggests the investment outperformed the benchmark, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. The Treynor Ratio is similar to the Sharpe Ratio but uses beta (systematic risk) instead of standard deviation (total risk). It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. Beta measures a portfolio’s sensitivity to market movements. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 suggests lower volatility. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio to determine which portfolio offers the best risk-adjusted performance and excess return. Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation Alpha = Portfolio Return – [Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate)] Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta For Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 3%) / 12% = 1 Alpha = 15% – [3% + 0.8 * (10% – 3%)] = 15% – (3% + 5.6%) = 6.4% Treynor Ratio = (15% – 3%) / 0.8 = 15% For Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (18% – 3%) / 15% = 1 Alpha = 18% – [3% + 1.2 * (10% – 3%)] = 18% – (3% + 8.4%) = 6.6% Treynor Ratio = (18% – 3%) / 1.2 = 12.5% For Portfolio C: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 8% = 1.125 Alpha = 12% – [3% + 0.6 * (10% – 3%)] = 12% – (3% + 4.2%) = 4.8% Treynor Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 0.6 = 15% Based on these calculations, Portfolio C has the highest Sharpe Ratio (1.125), indicating the best risk-adjusted return. Portfolio B has the highest alpha (6.6%), indicating the greatest excess return relative to its risk. Portfolio A and C has the highest Treynor ratio (15%) indicating the better return per unit of systematic risk.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
An investment fund, managed according to UK regulatory standards and adhering to CISI guidelines, reports the following performance data for the past year: a portfolio return of 12%, a risk-free rate of 2%, a portfolio standard deviation of 15%, a portfolio beta of 1.2, and a market return of 10%. The fund manager, Sarah, is preparing a report for her clients, many of whom are sophisticated investors familiar with performance metrics. Given this information, Sarah wants to provide a comprehensive analysis of the fund’s risk-adjusted performance using Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio. She also wants to contextualize these metrics for her clients, explaining what each ratio signifies and how they collectively paint a picture of the fund’s performance. Which of the following statements BEST describes the fund’s risk-adjusted performance and relative outperformance based on these metrics, suitable for inclusion in Sarah’s client report, and considering the UK regulatory environment’s emphasis on transparency and accurate representation of fund performance?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as the excess return (portfolio return minus risk-free rate) divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index or the return predicted by the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). A positive alpha indicates that the investment has outperformed its benchmark, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. The Treynor Ratio is a risk-adjusted performance measure that uses beta (systematic risk) rather than standard deviation (total risk). It is calculated as the excess return divided by beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. In this scenario, we need to calculate all three ratios and compare them. 1. **Sharpe Ratio Calculation:** * Excess Return = Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate = 12% – 2% = 10% * Sharpe Ratio = Excess Return / Standard Deviation = 10% / 15% = 0.67 2. **Alpha Calculation:** * Expected Return (CAPM) = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) = 2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%) = 2% + 1.2 * 8% = 2% + 9.6% = 11.6% * Alpha = Actual Return – Expected Return = 12% – 11.6% = 0.4% 3. **Treynor Ratio Calculation:** * Excess Return = Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate = 12% – 2% = 10% * Treynor Ratio = Excess Return / Beta = 10% / 1.2 = 8.33% The Sharpe Ratio is 0.67, indicating the portfolio’s return per unit of total risk. The alpha is 0.4%, showing the portfolio outperformed its expected return based on CAPM by 0.4%. The Treynor Ratio is 8.33%, indicating the portfolio’s return per unit of systematic risk. Comparing these, the portfolio shows modest outperformance (positive alpha) and reasonable risk-adjusted returns given its volatility.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as the excess return (portfolio return minus risk-free rate) divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index or the return predicted by the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). A positive alpha indicates that the investment has outperformed its benchmark, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. The Treynor Ratio is a risk-adjusted performance measure that uses beta (systematic risk) rather than standard deviation (total risk). It is calculated as the excess return divided by beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. In this scenario, we need to calculate all three ratios and compare them. 1. **Sharpe Ratio Calculation:** * Excess Return = Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate = 12% – 2% = 10% * Sharpe Ratio = Excess Return / Standard Deviation = 10% / 15% = 0.67 2. **Alpha Calculation:** * Expected Return (CAPM) = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate) = 2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%) = 2% + 1.2 * 8% = 2% + 9.6% = 11.6% * Alpha = Actual Return – Expected Return = 12% – 11.6% = 0.4% 3. **Treynor Ratio Calculation:** * Excess Return = Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate = 12% – 2% = 10% * Treynor Ratio = Excess Return / Beta = 10% / 1.2 = 8.33% The Sharpe Ratio is 0.67, indicating the portfolio’s return per unit of total risk. The alpha is 0.4%, showing the portfolio outperformed its expected return based on CAPM by 0.4%. The Treynor Ratio is 8.33%, indicating the portfolio’s return per unit of systematic risk. Comparing these, the portfolio shows modest outperformance (positive alpha) and reasonable risk-adjusted returns given its volatility.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
A fund manager, Sarah, manages an equity fund with a total return of 15% over the past year. The risk-free rate during the same period was 2%, and the fund’s standard deviation was 12%. The fund’s beta is 1.1. The market return for the same period was 10% with a standard deviation of 8%. Based on these figures, assess whether Sarah has added value through her fund management skills. Which of the following statements provides the MOST accurate evaluation of Sarah’s performance, considering Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha measures the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. Beta measures the systematic risk or volatility of an investment relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates that the investment’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates higher volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. Treynor Ratio is (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio for the fund and then compare them to the market to assess the fund manager’s performance. Sharpe Ratio (Fund) = (15% – 2%) / 12% = 1.0833 Sharpe Ratio (Market) = (10% – 2%) / 8% = 1.00 Alpha = Fund Return – [Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate)] Alpha = 15% – [2% + 1.1 * (10% – 2%)] = 15% – [2% + 8.8%] = 4.2% Treynor Ratio (Fund) = (15% – 2%) / 1.1 = 11.82% Treynor Ratio (Market) = (10% – 2%) / 1 = 8% Comparing the fund’s ratios to the market’s: – The fund’s Sharpe Ratio (1.0833) is higher than the market’s (1.00), indicating better risk-adjusted performance. – The fund’s Alpha (4.2%) is positive, meaning the fund outperformed its expected return based on its beta. – The fund’s Treynor Ratio (11.82%) is higher than the market’s (8%), indicating better risk-adjusted return per unit of systematic risk. Therefore, the fund manager has added value by generating a higher risk-adjusted return and outperforming the market on a risk-adjusted basis. The fund manager’s skill is evident through the positive alpha, indicating returns above what would be expected given the fund’s beta and the market’s performance. This suggests that the fund manager’s investment decisions have contributed positively to the fund’s performance.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha measures the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. Beta measures the systematic risk or volatility of an investment relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates that the investment’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates higher volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility. Treynor Ratio is (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio for the fund and then compare them to the market to assess the fund manager’s performance. Sharpe Ratio (Fund) = (15% – 2%) / 12% = 1.0833 Sharpe Ratio (Market) = (10% – 2%) / 8% = 1.00 Alpha = Fund Return – [Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate)] Alpha = 15% – [2% + 1.1 * (10% – 2%)] = 15% – [2% + 8.8%] = 4.2% Treynor Ratio (Fund) = (15% – 2%) / 1.1 = 11.82% Treynor Ratio (Market) = (10% – 2%) / 1 = 8% Comparing the fund’s ratios to the market’s: – The fund’s Sharpe Ratio (1.0833) is higher than the market’s (1.00), indicating better risk-adjusted performance. – The fund’s Alpha (4.2%) is positive, meaning the fund outperformed its expected return based on its beta. – The fund’s Treynor Ratio (11.82%) is higher than the market’s (8%), indicating better risk-adjusted return per unit of systematic risk. Therefore, the fund manager has added value by generating a higher risk-adjusted return and outperforming the market on a risk-adjusted basis. The fund manager’s skill is evident through the positive alpha, indicating returns above what would be expected given the fund’s beta and the market’s performance. This suggests that the fund manager’s investment decisions have contributed positively to the fund’s performance.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
A fund manager at “Northern Lights Capital” is constructing a diversified portfolio for a client with a moderate risk tolerance. The portfolio will consist of three asset classes: Equities, Bonds, and Real Estate. The fund manager has allocated the portfolio as follows: 50% to Equities, 30% to Bonds, and 20% to Real Estate. The expected returns and standard deviations for each asset class are: Equities (12% expected return, 15% standard deviation), Bonds (5% expected return, 7% standard deviation), and Real Estate (8% expected return, 10% standard deviation). The correlation coefficients between the asset classes are: Equities and Bonds (0.6), Equities and Real Estate (0.4), and Bonds and Real Estate (0.3). The current risk-free rate is 2%. Based on this information, calculate the Sharpe ratio of the portfolio. Show all calculations. Which of the following options is closest to the portfolio’s Sharpe ratio?
Correct
To determine the portfolio’s Sharpe ratio, we first need to calculate the portfolio’s expected return and standard deviation. The portfolio consists of three assets: Equities, Bonds, and Real Estate, with given weights, expected returns, and standard deviations. 1. **Portfolio Expected Return:** This is the weighted average of the expected returns of the individual assets. \[ E(R_p) = w_1 \cdot E(R_1) + w_2 \cdot E(R_2) + w_3 \cdot E(R_3) \] Where \(w_i\) is the weight of asset \(i\) and \(E(R_i)\) is the expected return of asset \(i\). \[ E(R_p) = (0.50 \cdot 0.12) + (0.30 \cdot 0.05) + (0.20 \cdot 0.08) = 0.06 + 0.015 + 0.016 = 0.091 \] So, the expected return of the portfolio is 9.1%. 2. **Portfolio Standard Deviation:** This requires considering the correlations between the assets. The formula for a three-asset portfolio is: \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{w_1^2 \cdot \sigma_1^2 + w_2^2 \cdot \sigma_2^2 + w_3^2 \cdot \sigma_3^2 + 2w_1w_2\rho_{1,2}\sigma_1\sigma_2 + 2w_1w_3\rho_{1,3}\sigma_1\sigma_3 + 2w_2w_3\rho_{2,3}\sigma_2\sigma_3} \] Where \(w_i\) is the weight of asset \(i\), \(\sigma_i\) is the standard deviation of asset \(i\), and \(\rho_{i,j}\) is the correlation between assets \(i\) and \(j\). \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.50^2 \cdot 0.15^2) + (0.30^2 \cdot 0.07^2) + (0.20^2 \cdot 0.10^2) + (2 \cdot 0.50 \cdot 0.30 \cdot 0.6 \cdot 0.15 \cdot 0.07) + (2 \cdot 0.50 \cdot 0.20 \cdot 0.4 \cdot 0.15 \cdot 0.10) + (2 \cdot 0.30 \cdot 0.20 \cdot 0.3 \cdot 0.07 \cdot 0.10)} \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{0.005625 + 0.000441 + 0.0004 + 0.00189 + 0.0006 + 0.000126} = \sqrt{0.009082} \approx 0.0953 \] So, the standard deviation of the portfolio is approximately 9.53%. 3. **Sharpe Ratio:** This is calculated as the excess return of the portfolio over the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{E(R_p) – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where \(E(R_p)\) is the expected return of the portfolio, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the standard deviation of the portfolio. \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.091 – 0.02}{0.0953} = \frac{0.071}{0.0953} \approx 0.745 \] Therefore, the Sharpe ratio of the portfolio is approximately 0.745. The Sharpe ratio is a crucial metric for evaluating risk-adjusted performance. A higher Sharpe ratio indicates better performance for the level of risk taken. In this context, the Sharpe ratio of 0.745 suggests that for each unit of risk (standard deviation) the portfolio takes, it generates 0.745 units of excess return above the risk-free rate. This allows investors to compare different portfolios and assess whether the returns are commensurate with the risk involved. For example, if another portfolio had a lower Sharpe ratio, it would indicate that it is either generating lower returns for the same level of risk or taking on more risk for the same level of return. The Sharpe ratio helps in making informed investment decisions by quantifying the trade-off between risk and return.
Incorrect
To determine the portfolio’s Sharpe ratio, we first need to calculate the portfolio’s expected return and standard deviation. The portfolio consists of three assets: Equities, Bonds, and Real Estate, with given weights, expected returns, and standard deviations. 1. **Portfolio Expected Return:** This is the weighted average of the expected returns of the individual assets. \[ E(R_p) = w_1 \cdot E(R_1) + w_2 \cdot E(R_2) + w_3 \cdot E(R_3) \] Where \(w_i\) is the weight of asset \(i\) and \(E(R_i)\) is the expected return of asset \(i\). \[ E(R_p) = (0.50 \cdot 0.12) + (0.30 \cdot 0.05) + (0.20 \cdot 0.08) = 0.06 + 0.015 + 0.016 = 0.091 \] So, the expected return of the portfolio is 9.1%. 2. **Portfolio Standard Deviation:** This requires considering the correlations between the assets. The formula for a three-asset portfolio is: \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{w_1^2 \cdot \sigma_1^2 + w_2^2 \cdot \sigma_2^2 + w_3^2 \cdot \sigma_3^2 + 2w_1w_2\rho_{1,2}\sigma_1\sigma_2 + 2w_1w_3\rho_{1,3}\sigma_1\sigma_3 + 2w_2w_3\rho_{2,3}\sigma_2\sigma_3} \] Where \(w_i\) is the weight of asset \(i\), \(\sigma_i\) is the standard deviation of asset \(i\), and \(\rho_{i,j}\) is the correlation between assets \(i\) and \(j\). \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.50^2 \cdot 0.15^2) + (0.30^2 \cdot 0.07^2) + (0.20^2 \cdot 0.10^2) + (2 \cdot 0.50 \cdot 0.30 \cdot 0.6 \cdot 0.15 \cdot 0.07) + (2 \cdot 0.50 \cdot 0.20 \cdot 0.4 \cdot 0.15 \cdot 0.10) + (2 \cdot 0.30 \cdot 0.20 \cdot 0.3 \cdot 0.07 \cdot 0.10)} \] \[ \sigma_p = \sqrt{0.005625 + 0.000441 + 0.0004 + 0.00189 + 0.0006 + 0.000126} = \sqrt{0.009082} \approx 0.0953 \] So, the standard deviation of the portfolio is approximately 9.53%. 3. **Sharpe Ratio:** This is calculated as the excess return of the portfolio over the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{E(R_p) – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where \(E(R_p)\) is the expected return of the portfolio, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the standard deviation of the portfolio. \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.091 – 0.02}{0.0953} = \frac{0.071}{0.0953} \approx 0.745 \] Therefore, the Sharpe ratio of the portfolio is approximately 0.745. The Sharpe ratio is a crucial metric for evaluating risk-adjusted performance. A higher Sharpe ratio indicates better performance for the level of risk taken. In this context, the Sharpe ratio of 0.745 suggests that for each unit of risk (standard deviation) the portfolio takes, it generates 0.745 units of excess return above the risk-free rate. This allows investors to compare different portfolios and assess whether the returns are commensurate with the risk involved. For example, if another portfolio had a lower Sharpe ratio, it would indicate that it is either generating lower returns for the same level of risk or taking on more risk for the same level of return. The Sharpe ratio helps in making informed investment decisions by quantifying the trade-off between risk and return.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
A fund manager at “Everest Capital” is constructing a portfolio using two investment projects: Project Alpha, focused on renewable energy infrastructure, and Project Beta, which invests in established technology companies. Project Alpha has an expected return of 15% with a standard deviation of 20%, while Project Beta has an expected return of 10% with a standard deviation of 12%. The fund manager aims for a target portfolio return of 12%. Initially, the correlation between the returns of Project Alpha and Project Beta is estimated to be 0.3. After a comprehensive market analysis, the fund manager discovers that due to increasing regulatory overlap and shared macroeconomic sensitivities between the renewable energy and technology sectors, the correlation has risen unexpectedly to 0.8. Assuming the fund manager rebalances the portfolio to maintain the 12% target return, what is the approximate increase in the portfolio’s standard deviation due solely to the change in correlation from 0.3 to 0.8?
Correct
Let’s analyze the scenario. The fund manager is considering two projects, Project Alpha and Project Beta, and wants to determine the optimal allocation to each project within a portfolio context. Project Alpha has an expected return of 15% and a standard deviation of 20%, while Project Beta has an expected return of 10% and a standard deviation of 12%. The correlation between the returns of the two projects is 0.3. The fund manager wants to achieve a target portfolio return of 12%. We need to find the allocation to each project that achieves this target return while considering the diversification benefits. First, we calculate the portfolio return: \[R_p = w_A R_A + w_B R_B\] Where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(w_A\) is the weight of Project Alpha, \(R_A\) is the return of Project Alpha, \(w_B\) is the weight of Project Beta, and \(R_B\) is the return of Project Beta. We want \(R_p = 12\%\), \(R_A = 15\%\), and \(R_B = 10\%\). Also, \(w_A + w_B = 1\), so \(w_B = 1 – w_A\). \[0.12 = w_A (0.15) + (1 – w_A) (0.10)\] \[0.12 = 0.15w_A + 0.10 – 0.10w_A\] \[0.02 = 0.05w_A\] \[w_A = \frac{0.02}{0.05} = 0.4\] So, \(w_A = 0.4\) and \(w_B = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6\). Next, we calculate the portfolio standard deviation: \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{w_A^2 \sigma_A^2 + w_B^2 \sigma_B^2 + 2 w_A w_B \rho_{AB} \sigma_A \sigma_B}\] Where \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio standard deviation, \(\sigma_A\) is the standard deviation of Project Alpha, \(\sigma_B\) is the standard deviation of Project Beta, and \(\rho_{AB}\) is the correlation between the returns of the two projects. Plugging in the values: \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.4)^2 (0.2)^2 + (0.6)^2 (0.12)^2 + 2 (0.4) (0.6) (0.3) (0.2) (0.12)}\] \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{0.0064 + 0.005184 + 0.003456}\] \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{0.01504}\] \[\sigma_p \approx 0.1226\] So, the portfolio standard deviation is approximately 12.26%. Now, consider a scenario where the correlation between the two projects is 0.8. \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.4)^2 (0.2)^2 + (0.6)^2 (0.12)^2 + 2 (0.4) (0.6) (0.8) (0.2) (0.12)}\] \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{0.0064 + 0.005184 + 0.01152}\] \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{0.023104}\] \[\sigma_p \approx 0.1520\] So, the portfolio standard deviation is approximately 15.20%. The difference in portfolio standard deviation is \(0.1520 – 0.1226 = 0.0294\), or 2.94%. This demonstrates the impact of correlation on portfolio risk. A higher correlation reduces the diversification benefits, leading to a higher portfolio standard deviation. The fund manager needs to consider the correlation between assets when constructing a portfolio to manage risk effectively. Even though the target return is achieved in both scenarios, the risk profile is significantly different. This highlights the importance of understanding correlation in portfolio construction and risk management.
Incorrect
Let’s analyze the scenario. The fund manager is considering two projects, Project Alpha and Project Beta, and wants to determine the optimal allocation to each project within a portfolio context. Project Alpha has an expected return of 15% and a standard deviation of 20%, while Project Beta has an expected return of 10% and a standard deviation of 12%. The correlation between the returns of the two projects is 0.3. The fund manager wants to achieve a target portfolio return of 12%. We need to find the allocation to each project that achieves this target return while considering the diversification benefits. First, we calculate the portfolio return: \[R_p = w_A R_A + w_B R_B\] Where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(w_A\) is the weight of Project Alpha, \(R_A\) is the return of Project Alpha, \(w_B\) is the weight of Project Beta, and \(R_B\) is the return of Project Beta. We want \(R_p = 12\%\), \(R_A = 15\%\), and \(R_B = 10\%\). Also, \(w_A + w_B = 1\), so \(w_B = 1 – w_A\). \[0.12 = w_A (0.15) + (1 – w_A) (0.10)\] \[0.12 = 0.15w_A + 0.10 – 0.10w_A\] \[0.02 = 0.05w_A\] \[w_A = \frac{0.02}{0.05} = 0.4\] So, \(w_A = 0.4\) and \(w_B = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6\). Next, we calculate the portfolio standard deviation: \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{w_A^2 \sigma_A^2 + w_B^2 \sigma_B^2 + 2 w_A w_B \rho_{AB} \sigma_A \sigma_B}\] Where \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio standard deviation, \(\sigma_A\) is the standard deviation of Project Alpha, \(\sigma_B\) is the standard deviation of Project Beta, and \(\rho_{AB}\) is the correlation between the returns of the two projects. Plugging in the values: \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.4)^2 (0.2)^2 + (0.6)^2 (0.12)^2 + 2 (0.4) (0.6) (0.3) (0.2) (0.12)}\] \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{0.0064 + 0.005184 + 0.003456}\] \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{0.01504}\] \[\sigma_p \approx 0.1226\] So, the portfolio standard deviation is approximately 12.26%. Now, consider a scenario where the correlation between the two projects is 0.8. \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.4)^2 (0.2)^2 + (0.6)^2 (0.12)^2 + 2 (0.4) (0.6) (0.8) (0.2) (0.12)}\] \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{0.0064 + 0.005184 + 0.01152}\] \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{0.023104}\] \[\sigma_p \approx 0.1520\] So, the portfolio standard deviation is approximately 15.20%. The difference in portfolio standard deviation is \(0.1520 – 0.1226 = 0.0294\), or 2.94%. This demonstrates the impact of correlation on portfolio risk. A higher correlation reduces the diversification benefits, leading to a higher portfolio standard deviation. The fund manager needs to consider the correlation between assets when constructing a portfolio to manage risk effectively. Even though the target return is achieved in both scenarios, the risk profile is significantly different. This highlights the importance of understanding correlation in portfolio construction and risk management.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
A fund manager is evaluating a unique investment opportunity that combines a perpetuity and an annuity. The investment promises to pay a fixed amount of £6,000 per year perpetually, starting immediately. In addition to the perpetuity, the investment also includes an annuity component that will pay £10,000 per year for the next 5 years. The fund manager uses an 8% discount rate to evaluate such investments, reflecting the fund’s required rate of return given the risk profile of the investment. Considering the combined cash flows from both the perpetuity and the annuity, what is the maximum price the fund manager should be willing to pay for this investment opportunity, ensuring it meets the fund’s required rate of return? Assume all cash flows occur at the end of each year, except for the perpetuity which starts immediately.
Correct
To solve this problem, we need to first calculate the present value of the perpetuity using the formula: Present Value = Cash Flow / Discount Rate. In this case, the cash flow is £6,000 and the discount rate is 8% (0.08). Therefore, the present value of the perpetuity is £6,000 / 0.08 = £75,000. Next, we need to calculate the present value of the annuity. The formula for the present value of an annuity is: PV = PMT * [(1 – (1 + r)^-n) / r], where PMT is the payment amount, r is the discount rate, and n is the number of periods. In this case, PMT is £10,000, r is 8% (0.08), and n is 5 years. Therefore, the present value of the annuity is £10,000 * [(1 – (1 + 0.08)^-5) / 0.08] = £10,000 * [(1 – 0.68058) / 0.08] = £10,000 * [0.31942 / 0.08] = £10,000 * 3.99271 = £39,927.10. Finally, we need to add the present value of the perpetuity and the present value of the annuity to find the total present value of the investment opportunity: £75,000 + £39,927.10 = £114,927.10. Therefore, the maximum price the fund manager should pay for this investment opportunity is £114,927.10. A common mistake is to forget that the perpetuity starts immediately. If the perpetuity was deferred, its present value would need to be discounted back to time zero. Another potential error is using the future value formulas instead of the present value formulas. Understanding the difference between these concepts and when to apply them is crucial for accurate investment analysis. The annuity calculation is also prone to errors if the correct number of periods or discount rate is not used. It is important to double-check these inputs to ensure the calculation is accurate. Finally, some may incorrectly apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) or other asset pricing models, which are not relevant for simply calculating the present value of a stream of cash flows.
Incorrect
To solve this problem, we need to first calculate the present value of the perpetuity using the formula: Present Value = Cash Flow / Discount Rate. In this case, the cash flow is £6,000 and the discount rate is 8% (0.08). Therefore, the present value of the perpetuity is £6,000 / 0.08 = £75,000. Next, we need to calculate the present value of the annuity. The formula for the present value of an annuity is: PV = PMT * [(1 – (1 + r)^-n) / r], where PMT is the payment amount, r is the discount rate, and n is the number of periods. In this case, PMT is £10,000, r is 8% (0.08), and n is 5 years. Therefore, the present value of the annuity is £10,000 * [(1 – (1 + 0.08)^-5) / 0.08] = £10,000 * [(1 – 0.68058) / 0.08] = £10,000 * [0.31942 / 0.08] = £10,000 * 3.99271 = £39,927.10. Finally, we need to add the present value of the perpetuity and the present value of the annuity to find the total present value of the investment opportunity: £75,000 + £39,927.10 = £114,927.10. Therefore, the maximum price the fund manager should pay for this investment opportunity is £114,927.10. A common mistake is to forget that the perpetuity starts immediately. If the perpetuity was deferred, its present value would need to be discounted back to time zero. Another potential error is using the future value formulas instead of the present value formulas. Understanding the difference between these concepts and when to apply them is crucial for accurate investment analysis. The annuity calculation is also prone to errors if the correct number of periods or discount rate is not used. It is important to double-check these inputs to ensure the calculation is accurate. Finally, some may incorrectly apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) or other asset pricing models, which are not relevant for simply calculating the present value of a stream of cash flows.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
A fund manager, Amelia, is evaluating the performance of three different investment funds (Fund A, Fund B, and Fund C) to determine which fund offers the best risk-adjusted returns. The risk-free rate is 2%, and the market return is 10%. Fund A has a return of 12% and a standard deviation of 15%, with a beta of 0.8. Fund B has a return of 15% and a standard deviation of 20%, with a beta of 1.2. Fund C has a return of 10% and a standard deviation of 10%, with a beta of 0.6. Based on the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio, which fund demonstrates the most compelling risk-adjusted performance, and how do these metrics support your conclusion?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is received for each unit of total risk (standard deviation). The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Standard Deviation of Portfolio. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha measures the portfolio’s excess return relative to its benchmark, considering the risk-free rate and the portfolio’s beta. It signifies the value added by the fund manager. The formula is: Alpha = Portfolio Return – [Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate)]. Beta measures a portfolio’s volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility and vice versa. Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. It indicates the excess return achieved for each unit of systematic risk. The formula is: Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta and Treynor Ratio for each fund, and then compare the results. For Fund A: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.67 Alpha = 12% – [2% + 0.8 * (10% – 2%)] = 12% – (2% + 6.4%) = 3.6% Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 0.8 = 12.5% For Fund B: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 20% = 0.65 Alpha = 15% – [2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%)] = 15% – (2% + 9.6%) = 3.4% Treynor Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 1.2 = 10.83% For Fund C: Sharpe Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 10% = 0.8 Alpha = 10% – [2% + 0.6 * (10% – 2%)] = 10% – (2% + 4.8%) = 3.2% Treynor Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 0.6 = 13.33% Fund C has the highest Sharpe Ratio (0.8), indicating the best risk-adjusted return per unit of total risk. Fund A has the highest Alpha (3.6%), indicating the highest excess return relative to its benchmark. Fund C has the highest Treynor Ratio (13.33%), indicating the best risk-adjusted return per unit of systematic risk.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is received for each unit of total risk (standard deviation). The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Standard Deviation of Portfolio. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha measures the portfolio’s excess return relative to its benchmark, considering the risk-free rate and the portfolio’s beta. It signifies the value added by the fund manager. The formula is: Alpha = Portfolio Return – [Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate)]. Beta measures a portfolio’s volatility relative to the market. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility and vice versa. Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. It indicates the excess return achieved for each unit of systematic risk. The formula is: Treynor Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta and Treynor Ratio for each fund, and then compare the results. For Fund A: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.67 Alpha = 12% – [2% + 0.8 * (10% – 2%)] = 12% – (2% + 6.4%) = 3.6% Treynor Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 0.8 = 12.5% For Fund B: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 20% = 0.65 Alpha = 15% – [2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%)] = 15% – (2% + 9.6%) = 3.4% Treynor Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 1.2 = 10.83% For Fund C: Sharpe Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 10% = 0.8 Alpha = 10% – [2% + 0.6 * (10% – 2%)] = 10% – (2% + 4.8%) = 3.2% Treynor Ratio = (10% – 2%) / 0.6 = 13.33% Fund C has the highest Sharpe Ratio (0.8), indicating the best risk-adjusted return per unit of total risk. Fund A has the highest Alpha (3.6%), indicating the highest excess return relative to its benchmark. Fund C has the highest Treynor Ratio (13.33%), indicating the best risk-adjusted return per unit of systematic risk.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
A high-net-worth individual, Mr. Sterling, is evaluating two actively managed UK equity funds, Fund A and Fund B, for inclusion in his portfolio. Mr. Sterling is particularly concerned with risk-adjusted returns and benchmark outperformance. Fund A has demonstrated a total return of 12% with a standard deviation of 15% and a beta of 0.8. Fund B has achieved a total return of 15% with a standard deviation of 20% and a beta of 1.2. The current risk-free rate is 2%. After a detailed analysis, it is determined that Fund A has an alpha of -1% and Fund B has an alpha of 2%. Considering Mr. Sterling’s objectives and the fund’s performance metrics, which fund is most suitable and why?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is received for each unit of total risk taken. It’s calculated as \(\frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\), where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio’s standard deviation. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio relative to its benchmark, adjusted for risk. A positive alpha suggests the portfolio has outperformed its benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis. The Treynor Ratio assesses risk-adjusted performance using systematic risk (beta). It’s calculated as \(\frac{R_p – R_f}{\beta_p}\), where \(\beta_p\) is the portfolio’s beta. In this scenario, we first calculate the Sharpe Ratio for each fund. For Fund A, the Sharpe Ratio is \(\frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.15} = 0.667\). For Fund B, the Sharpe Ratio is \(\frac{0.15 – 0.02}{0.20} = 0.65\). Fund A has a slightly higher Sharpe Ratio, indicating better risk-adjusted performance based on total risk. Next, we consider Alpha. Fund A’s alpha is -0.01, meaning it underperformed its benchmark by 1% after adjusting for risk. Fund B’s alpha is 0.02, indicating it outperformed its benchmark by 2% after risk adjustment. Finally, we calculate the Treynor Ratio. For Fund A, the Treynor Ratio is \(\frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.8} = 0.125\). For Fund B, the Treynor Ratio is \(\frac{0.15 – 0.02}{1.2} = 0.108\). Fund A has a higher Treynor Ratio, indicating better risk-adjusted performance based on systematic risk. Considering all three metrics, Fund A has a higher Sharpe Ratio and Treynor Ratio, suggesting better risk-adjusted performance based on total and systematic risk, respectively. However, Fund B has a positive alpha, indicating outperformance relative to its benchmark after risk adjustment, while Fund A has a negative alpha. The best choice depends on the investor’s priorities: overall risk-adjusted performance (Sharpe and Treynor) versus benchmark outperformance (Alpha). In this complex situation, the client’s specific objectives are paramount.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is received for each unit of total risk taken. It’s calculated as \(\frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\), where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio’s standard deviation. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio relative to its benchmark, adjusted for risk. A positive alpha suggests the portfolio has outperformed its benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis. The Treynor Ratio assesses risk-adjusted performance using systematic risk (beta). It’s calculated as \(\frac{R_p – R_f}{\beta_p}\), where \(\beta_p\) is the portfolio’s beta. In this scenario, we first calculate the Sharpe Ratio for each fund. For Fund A, the Sharpe Ratio is \(\frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.15} = 0.667\). For Fund B, the Sharpe Ratio is \(\frac{0.15 – 0.02}{0.20} = 0.65\). Fund A has a slightly higher Sharpe Ratio, indicating better risk-adjusted performance based on total risk. Next, we consider Alpha. Fund A’s alpha is -0.01, meaning it underperformed its benchmark by 1% after adjusting for risk. Fund B’s alpha is 0.02, indicating it outperformed its benchmark by 2% after risk adjustment. Finally, we calculate the Treynor Ratio. For Fund A, the Treynor Ratio is \(\frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.8} = 0.125\). For Fund B, the Treynor Ratio is \(\frac{0.15 – 0.02}{1.2} = 0.108\). Fund A has a higher Treynor Ratio, indicating better risk-adjusted performance based on systematic risk. Considering all three metrics, Fund A has a higher Sharpe Ratio and Treynor Ratio, suggesting better risk-adjusted performance based on total and systematic risk, respectively. However, Fund B has a positive alpha, indicating outperformance relative to its benchmark after risk adjustment, while Fund A has a negative alpha. The best choice depends on the investor’s priorities: overall risk-adjusted performance (Sharpe and Treynor) versus benchmark outperformance (Alpha). In this complex situation, the client’s specific objectives are paramount.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
A portfolio manager at “Thames River Capital” is evaluating the performance of several investment funds and individual assets for potential inclusion in a client’s portfolio. The client, Mr. Abernathy, is particularly interested in maximizing risk-adjusted returns and outperforming market expectations. The manager has gathered the following data: * Fund Alpha: Total return of 12%, standard deviation of 8%. * Fund Beta: Total return of 15%, standard deviation of 12%. * Asset X: Beta of 1.2. * Asset Y: Beta of 0.8. * Fund Gamma: Actual return of 14%. * Fund Delta: Actual return of 9%. * The risk-free rate is 2%. * The expected market return is 10%. Assuming the portfolio manager uses the Sharpe Ratio to assess risk-adjusted performance and Jensen’s Alpha to measure outperformance relative to CAPM expectations, which funds should the portfolio manager recommend to Mr. Abernathy?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as the difference between the portfolio’s return and the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Rp – Rf) / σp, where Rp is the portfolio return, Rf is the risk-free rate, and σp is the portfolio’s standard deviation. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for Fund Alpha and Fund Beta and then compare them. For Fund Alpha: Rp = 12%, Rf = 2%, σp = 8%. Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 8% = 10% / 8% = 1.25. For Fund Beta: Rp = 15%, Rf = 2%, σp = 12%. Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 12% = 13% / 12% = 1.083. The question also assesses understanding of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). CAPM calculates the expected return of an asset based on its beta, the risk-free rate, and the market risk premium. The formula is: Expected Return = Rf + β(Rm – Rf), where Rf is the risk-free rate, β is the beta of the asset, and Rm is the expected market return. A higher beta indicates greater systematic risk. For Asset X: Rf = 2%, β = 1.2, Rm = 10%. Expected Return = 2% + 1.2(10% – 2%) = 2% + 1.2(8%) = 2% + 9.6% = 11.6%. For Asset Y: Rf = 2%, β = 0.8, Rm = 10%. Expected Return = 2% + 0.8(10% – 2%) = 2% + 0.8(8%) = 2% + 6.4% = 8.4%. Finally, the question tests understanding of Jensen’s Alpha, which measures the difference between the actual return of a portfolio and its expected return based on CAPM. A positive alpha indicates that the portfolio has outperformed its expected return, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Alpha = Actual Return – Expected Return. Fund Gamma’s actual return is 14%, and its expected return based on CAPM is 11.6%. Alpha = 14% – 11.6% = 2.4%. Fund Delta’s actual return is 9%, and its expected return based on CAPM is 8.4%. Alpha = 9% – 8.4% = 0.6%. Comparing the results, Fund Alpha has a higher Sharpe Ratio (1.25) than Fund Beta (1.083), indicating better risk-adjusted performance. Fund Gamma has a higher Jensen’s Alpha (2.4%) than Fund Delta (0.6%), indicating better outperformance relative to its expected return. Therefore, the portfolio manager should recommend Fund Alpha and Fund Gamma.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as the difference between the portfolio’s return and the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Rp – Rf) / σp, where Rp is the portfolio return, Rf is the risk-free rate, and σp is the portfolio’s standard deviation. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for Fund Alpha and Fund Beta and then compare them. For Fund Alpha: Rp = 12%, Rf = 2%, σp = 8%. Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 8% = 10% / 8% = 1.25. For Fund Beta: Rp = 15%, Rf = 2%, σp = 12%. Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 12% = 13% / 12% = 1.083. The question also assesses understanding of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). CAPM calculates the expected return of an asset based on its beta, the risk-free rate, and the market risk premium. The formula is: Expected Return = Rf + β(Rm – Rf), where Rf is the risk-free rate, β is the beta of the asset, and Rm is the expected market return. A higher beta indicates greater systematic risk. For Asset X: Rf = 2%, β = 1.2, Rm = 10%. Expected Return = 2% + 1.2(10% – 2%) = 2% + 1.2(8%) = 2% + 9.6% = 11.6%. For Asset Y: Rf = 2%, β = 0.8, Rm = 10%. Expected Return = 2% + 0.8(10% – 2%) = 2% + 0.8(8%) = 2% + 6.4% = 8.4%. Finally, the question tests understanding of Jensen’s Alpha, which measures the difference between the actual return of a portfolio and its expected return based on CAPM. A positive alpha indicates that the portfolio has outperformed its expected return, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Alpha = Actual Return – Expected Return. Fund Gamma’s actual return is 14%, and its expected return based on CAPM is 11.6%. Alpha = 14% – 11.6% = 2.4%. Fund Delta’s actual return is 9%, and its expected return based on CAPM is 8.4%. Alpha = 9% – 8.4% = 0.6%. Comparing the results, Fund Alpha has a higher Sharpe Ratio (1.25) than Fund Beta (1.083), indicating better risk-adjusted performance. Fund Gamma has a higher Jensen’s Alpha (2.4%) than Fund Delta (0.6%), indicating better outperformance relative to its expected return. Therefore, the portfolio manager should recommend Fund Alpha and Fund Gamma.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
A fund manager is advising a moderately risk-averse client on asset allocation. The client has two potential investment portfolios to choose from: Portfolio A, which has an expected return of 12% and a standard deviation of 15%, and Portfolio B, which has an expected return of 18% and a standard deviation of 25%. The current risk-free rate is 2%. The client’s investment horizon is long-term, approximately 30 years until retirement. Considering the client’s risk profile, the available investment options, and the regulatory requirement to act in the client’s best interest under FCA COBS 2.1, which portfolio allocation strategy is the MOST suitable for the client? Assume a correlation of 0.6 between the two portfolios if combined.
Correct
To determine the optimal asset allocation, we need to consider the Sharpe Ratio for each portfolio, which measures risk-adjusted return. The Sharpe Ratio is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted performance. First, calculate the Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio_A = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.10 / 0.15 = 0.6667 Next, calculate the Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio_B = (18% – 2%) / 25% = 0.16 / 0.25 = 0.64 Now, we need to consider the investor’s risk aversion. Since the investor is moderately risk-averse, they will prefer a higher Sharpe Ratio, but not at the expense of significantly lower returns. Portfolio A has a higher Sharpe Ratio (0.6667) compared to Portfolio B (0.64), indicating better risk-adjusted returns. To refine our analysis, let’s consider a scenario where the investor allocates a portion of their investment to each portfolio. Let’s assume a mix of 60% in Portfolio A and 40% in Portfolio B. Combined Portfolio Return = (0.6 * 12%) + (0.4 * 18%) = 7.2% + 7.2% = 14.4% To calculate the combined portfolio standard deviation, we need the correlation between the two portfolios. Let’s assume the correlation is 0.6. Combined Portfolio Variance = (0.6^2 * 0.15^2) + (0.4^2 * 0.25^2) + (2 * 0.6 * 0.6 * 0.4 * 0.15 * 0.25) = (0.36 * 0.0225) + (0.16 * 0.0625) + (0.72 * 0.15 * 0.25 * 0.6) = 0.0081 + 0.01 + 0.0162 = 0.0343 Combined Portfolio Standard Deviation = √0.0343 ≈ 0.1852 or 18.52% Sharpe Ratio_Combined = (14.4% – 2%) / 18.52% = 0.124 / 0.1852 = 0.6695 In this scenario, a combination of the two portfolios yields a higher Sharpe Ratio than Portfolio B alone, and is slightly better than Portfolio A alone. However, given the investor’s moderate risk aversion, and the slightly higher Sharpe Ratio of Portfolio A compared to Portfolio B, Portfolio A is the most suitable. Now, consider an entirely different scenario: The investor is investing for retirement in 30 years. A more aggressive approach may be warranted, but still balanced by risk. Portfolio A (12% return, 15% risk) may be suitable for the risk-averse portion of the portfolio, while Portfolio B (18% return, 25% risk) is suitable for the growth-oriented portion. The optimal allocation would depend on their specific risk tolerance and financial goals. The best approach is to use Portfolio A due to its better risk-adjusted return (Sharpe Ratio) which aligns with the investor’s risk aversion.
Incorrect
To determine the optimal asset allocation, we need to consider the Sharpe Ratio for each portfolio, which measures risk-adjusted return. The Sharpe Ratio is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted performance. First, calculate the Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio_A = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 0.10 / 0.15 = 0.6667 Next, calculate the Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio_B = (18% – 2%) / 25% = 0.16 / 0.25 = 0.64 Now, we need to consider the investor’s risk aversion. Since the investor is moderately risk-averse, they will prefer a higher Sharpe Ratio, but not at the expense of significantly lower returns. Portfolio A has a higher Sharpe Ratio (0.6667) compared to Portfolio B (0.64), indicating better risk-adjusted returns. To refine our analysis, let’s consider a scenario where the investor allocates a portion of their investment to each portfolio. Let’s assume a mix of 60% in Portfolio A and 40% in Portfolio B. Combined Portfolio Return = (0.6 * 12%) + (0.4 * 18%) = 7.2% + 7.2% = 14.4% To calculate the combined portfolio standard deviation, we need the correlation between the two portfolios. Let’s assume the correlation is 0.6. Combined Portfolio Variance = (0.6^2 * 0.15^2) + (0.4^2 * 0.25^2) + (2 * 0.6 * 0.6 * 0.4 * 0.15 * 0.25) = (0.36 * 0.0225) + (0.16 * 0.0625) + (0.72 * 0.15 * 0.25 * 0.6) = 0.0081 + 0.01 + 0.0162 = 0.0343 Combined Portfolio Standard Deviation = √0.0343 ≈ 0.1852 or 18.52% Sharpe Ratio_Combined = (14.4% – 2%) / 18.52% = 0.124 / 0.1852 = 0.6695 In this scenario, a combination of the two portfolios yields a higher Sharpe Ratio than Portfolio B alone, and is slightly better than Portfolio A alone. However, given the investor’s moderate risk aversion, and the slightly higher Sharpe Ratio of Portfolio A compared to Portfolio B, Portfolio A is the most suitable. Now, consider an entirely different scenario: The investor is investing for retirement in 30 years. A more aggressive approach may be warranted, but still balanced by risk. Portfolio A (12% return, 15% risk) may be suitable for the risk-averse portion of the portfolio, while Portfolio B (18% return, 25% risk) is suitable for the growth-oriented portion. The optimal allocation would depend on their specific risk tolerance and financial goals. The best approach is to use Portfolio A due to its better risk-adjusted return (Sharpe Ratio) which aligns with the investor’s risk aversion.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
A fund manager, operating under UK regulatory standards and adhering to CISI guidelines, manages a portfolio with a return of 12%. The risk-free rate, represented by UK Gilts, is 2%. The portfolio has a standard deviation of 15% and a beta of 1.2 relative to the FTSE 100. The FTSE 100 returned 8% during the same period. The tracking error (standard deviation of the difference between the portfolio and the benchmark returns) is 7%. Consider a scenario where the fund is being evaluated by a pension fund trustee who is assessing its risk-adjusted performance and consistency in generating excess returns relative to its benchmark. The trustee is particularly interested in metrics that align with UK regulatory expectations for fund performance reporting and CISI best practices. Determine the fund’s Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Treynor Ratio, and Information Ratio, providing a comprehensive assessment of its performance.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is received for each unit of total risk taken. It is calculated as \[\frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\], where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio relative to its benchmark, adjusted for risk (beta). A positive alpha suggests the manager has added value. It can be estimated using the formula: Alpha = Portfolio Return – [Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate)]. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using systematic risk (beta) instead of total risk (standard deviation). It’s calculated as \[\frac{R_p – R_f}{\beta_p}\], where \(\beta_p\) is the portfolio’s beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. Information Ratio (IR) measures a portfolio manager’s ability to generate excess returns relative to a benchmark, compared to the volatility of those returns. It is calculated as \[\frac{R_p – R_b}{\sigma_{p-b}}\], where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_b\) is the benchmark return, and \(\sigma_{p-b}\) is the tracking error (standard deviation of the difference between portfolio and benchmark returns). A higher IR indicates better consistency in generating excess returns relative to the benchmark. In this scenario, calculating the Sharpe Ratio: \(\frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.15} = 0.667\). Calculating Alpha: \(0.12 – [0.02 + 1.2 * (0.08 – 0.02)] = 0.028\), or 2.8%. Calculating the Treynor Ratio: \(\frac{0.12 – 0.02}{1.2} = 0.0833\). Calculating the Information Ratio: \(\frac{0.12 – 0.08}{0.07} = 0.571\). The fund’s Sharpe Ratio is 0.667, Alpha is 2.8%, Treynor Ratio is 0.0833 and Information Ratio is 0.571.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is received for each unit of total risk taken. It is calculated as \[\frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\], where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio relative to its benchmark, adjusted for risk (beta). A positive alpha suggests the manager has added value. It can be estimated using the formula: Alpha = Portfolio Return – [Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return – Risk-Free Rate)]. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using systematic risk (beta) instead of total risk (standard deviation). It’s calculated as \[\frac{R_p – R_f}{\beta_p}\], where \(\beta_p\) is the portfolio’s beta. A higher Treynor Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance relative to systematic risk. Information Ratio (IR) measures a portfolio manager’s ability to generate excess returns relative to a benchmark, compared to the volatility of those returns. It is calculated as \[\frac{R_p – R_b}{\sigma_{p-b}}\], where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_b\) is the benchmark return, and \(\sigma_{p-b}\) is the tracking error (standard deviation of the difference between portfolio and benchmark returns). A higher IR indicates better consistency in generating excess returns relative to the benchmark. In this scenario, calculating the Sharpe Ratio: \(\frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.15} = 0.667\). Calculating Alpha: \(0.12 – [0.02 + 1.2 * (0.08 – 0.02)] = 0.028\), or 2.8%. Calculating the Treynor Ratio: \(\frac{0.12 – 0.02}{1.2} = 0.0833\). Calculating the Information Ratio: \(\frac{0.12 – 0.08}{0.07} = 0.571\). The fund’s Sharpe Ratio is 0.667, Alpha is 2.8%, Treynor Ratio is 0.0833 and Information Ratio is 0.571.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Portfolio Omega generated a return of 12% last year. The risk-free rate was 3%, and the portfolio’s standard deviation was 8%. A junior analyst, fresh out of university, calculated the Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio Omega. The analyst then presented this Sharpe Ratio to the fund manager, along with a brief explanation of its implications. The fund manager, however, challenged the analyst’s interpretation, pointing out that while the Sharpe Ratio is a useful metric, its applicability is highly dependent on the specific investment context and the fund’s overall strategy. The fund manager also mentioned the need to consider alternative performance metrics in conjunction with the Sharpe Ratio. Given the information above, what is the Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio Omega, and what additional factor is MOST critical to consider when interpreting this ratio in the context of the fund’s overall performance assessment, according to UK regulatory standards and CISI guidelines?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It quantifies the excess return earned per unit of total risk in a portfolio. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio Omega. The portfolio return is given as 12%, the risk-free rate is 3%, and the portfolio standard deviation is 8%. Plugging these values into the formula: Sharpe Ratio = (0.12 – 0.03) / 0.08 = 0.09 / 0.08 = 1.125 The Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio Omega is 1.125. This means that for every unit of total risk (standard deviation) taken, the portfolio generated 1.125 units of excess return above the risk-free rate. Now, consider a scenario where two fund managers, Amelia and Ben, are managing separate portfolios with similar investment mandates. Amelia’s portfolio has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.8, while Ben’s portfolio has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.2. This indicates that Ben’s portfolio is generating higher risk-adjusted returns compared to Amelia’s. However, it’s crucial to consider the context. If Amelia’s portfolio invests in more illiquid assets like emerging market bonds, which inherently have higher transaction costs and less frequent pricing, a lower Sharpe Ratio might be acceptable if the fund’s mandate is long-term capital appreciation. Conversely, if Ben’s portfolio is primarily invested in highly liquid, low-volatility government bonds, a higher Sharpe Ratio is expected. Another way to understand the Sharpe Ratio is to relate it to the Treynor Ratio and Jensen’s Alpha. The Treynor Ratio uses beta (systematic risk) instead of standard deviation (total risk) in the denominator, making it suitable for well-diversified portfolios. Jensen’s Alpha, on the other hand, measures the portfolio’s actual return above its expected return based on the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). While the Sharpe Ratio provides a single number for risk-adjusted performance, Jensen’s Alpha gives a more granular view of the manager’s skill in generating excess returns.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It quantifies the excess return earned per unit of total risk in a portfolio. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio Omega. The portfolio return is given as 12%, the risk-free rate is 3%, and the portfolio standard deviation is 8%. Plugging these values into the formula: Sharpe Ratio = (0.12 – 0.03) / 0.08 = 0.09 / 0.08 = 1.125 The Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio Omega is 1.125. This means that for every unit of total risk (standard deviation) taken, the portfolio generated 1.125 units of excess return above the risk-free rate. Now, consider a scenario where two fund managers, Amelia and Ben, are managing separate portfolios with similar investment mandates. Amelia’s portfolio has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.8, while Ben’s portfolio has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.2. This indicates that Ben’s portfolio is generating higher risk-adjusted returns compared to Amelia’s. However, it’s crucial to consider the context. If Amelia’s portfolio invests in more illiquid assets like emerging market bonds, which inherently have higher transaction costs and less frequent pricing, a lower Sharpe Ratio might be acceptable if the fund’s mandate is long-term capital appreciation. Conversely, if Ben’s portfolio is primarily invested in highly liquid, low-volatility government bonds, a higher Sharpe Ratio is expected. Another way to understand the Sharpe Ratio is to relate it to the Treynor Ratio and Jensen’s Alpha. The Treynor Ratio uses beta (systematic risk) instead of standard deviation (total risk) in the denominator, making it suitable for well-diversified portfolios. Jensen’s Alpha, on the other hand, measures the portfolio’s actual return above its expected return based on the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). While the Sharpe Ratio provides a single number for risk-adjusted performance, Jensen’s Alpha gives a more granular view of the manager’s skill in generating excess returns.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
A fund manager is constructing a portfolio for a new client, Emily, who is a UK-based taxpayer with a long-term investment horizon of 25 years. Emily’s primary goal is capital appreciation, but she also requires a level of income generation. The fund manager is considering four different asset allocations between equities and bonds, taking into account a correlation of 0.25 between the two asset classes. The expected returns and standard deviations for equities and bonds are as follows: Equities: Expected Return = 12%, Standard Deviation = 18%; Bonds: Expected Return = 5%, Standard Deviation = 7%. The current risk-free rate in the UK is 2%. Considering Emily’s objectives and the available asset allocations, which of the following allocations would be most suitable based solely on the Sharpe Ratio? (Assume no transaction costs or taxes beyond the stated risk-free rate).
Correct
To determine the optimal asset allocation for a client, we need to consider their risk tolerance, investment horizon, and financial goals. The Sharpe Ratio helps evaluate the risk-adjusted return of different portfolios. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted return. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] where \( R_p \) is the portfolio return, \( R_f \) is the risk-free rate, and \( \sigma_p \) is the portfolio standard deviation. First, calculate the expected return and standard deviation for each asset class: Equities: Expected Return = 12%, Standard Deviation = 18% Bonds: Expected Return = 5%, Standard Deviation = 7% Next, calculate the portfolio return and standard deviation for each allocation: Allocation A (70% Equities, 30% Bonds): Portfolio Return \( (R_p) = (0.70 \times 12\%) + (0.30 \times 5\%) = 8.4\% + 1.5\% = 9.9\% \) Portfolio Standard Deviation \( (\sigma_p) = \sqrt{(0.70^2 \times 0.18^2) + (0.30^2 \times 0.07^2) + (2 \times 0.70 \times 0.30 \times 0.18 \times 0.07 \times 0.25)} \) \( \sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.49 \times 0.0324) + (0.09 \times 0.0049) + (0.001323)} \) \( \sigma_p = \sqrt{0.015876 + 0.000441 + 0.001323} = \sqrt{0.01764} \approx 0.133 \) or 13.3% Sharpe Ratio \( = \frac{0.099 – 0.02}{0.133} = \frac{0.079}{0.133} \approx 0.594 \) Allocation B (50% Equities, 50% Bonds): Portfolio Return \( (R_p) = (0.50 \times 12\%) + (0.50 \times 5\%) = 6\% + 2.5\% = 8.5\% \) Portfolio Standard Deviation \( (\sigma_p) = \sqrt{(0.50^2 \times 0.18^2) + (0.50^2 \times 0.07^2) + (2 \times 0.50 \times 0.50 \times 0.18 \times 0.07 \times 0.25)} \) \( \sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.25 \times 0.0324) + (0.25 \times 0.0049) + (0.001575)} \) \( \sigma_p = \sqrt{0.0081 + 0.001225 + 0.001575} = \sqrt{0.0109} \approx 0.1044 \) or 10.44% Sharpe Ratio \( = \frac{0.085 – 0.02}{0.1044} = \frac{0.065}{0.1044} \approx 0.623 \) Allocation C (30% Equities, 70% Bonds): Portfolio Return \( (R_p) = (0.30 \times 12\%) + (0.70 \times 5\%) = 3.6\% + 3.5\% = 7.1\% \) Portfolio Standard Deviation \( (\sigma_p) = \sqrt{(0.30^2 \times 0.18^2) + (0.70^2 \times 0.07^2) + (2 \times 0.30 \times 0.70 \times 0.18 \times 0.07 \times 0.25)} \) \( \sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.09 \times 0.0324) + (0.49 \times 0.0049) + (0.0004725)} \) \( \sigma_p = \sqrt{0.002916 + 0.002401 + 0.0004725} = \sqrt{0.0057895} \approx 0.0761 \) or 7.61% Sharpe Ratio \( = \frac{0.071 – 0.02}{0.0761} = \frac{0.051}{0.0761} \approx 0.670 \) Allocation D (100% Bonds): Portfolio Return \( (R_p) = 5\% \) Portfolio Standard Deviation \( (\sigma_p) = 7\% \) Sharpe Ratio \( = \frac{0.05 – 0.02}{0.07} = \frac{0.03}{0.07} \approx 0.429 \) Comparing the Sharpe Ratios: Allocation A: 0.594 Allocation B: 0.623 Allocation C: 0.670 Allocation D: 0.429 Allocation C has the highest Sharpe Ratio (0.670), indicating the best risk-adjusted return.
Incorrect
To determine the optimal asset allocation for a client, we need to consider their risk tolerance, investment horizon, and financial goals. The Sharpe Ratio helps evaluate the risk-adjusted return of different portfolios. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted return. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: \[ \text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] where \( R_p \) is the portfolio return, \( R_f \) is the risk-free rate, and \( \sigma_p \) is the portfolio standard deviation. First, calculate the expected return and standard deviation for each asset class: Equities: Expected Return = 12%, Standard Deviation = 18% Bonds: Expected Return = 5%, Standard Deviation = 7% Next, calculate the portfolio return and standard deviation for each allocation: Allocation A (70% Equities, 30% Bonds): Portfolio Return \( (R_p) = (0.70 \times 12\%) + (0.30 \times 5\%) = 8.4\% + 1.5\% = 9.9\% \) Portfolio Standard Deviation \( (\sigma_p) = \sqrt{(0.70^2 \times 0.18^2) + (0.30^2 \times 0.07^2) + (2 \times 0.70 \times 0.30 \times 0.18 \times 0.07 \times 0.25)} \) \( \sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.49 \times 0.0324) + (0.09 \times 0.0049) + (0.001323)} \) \( \sigma_p = \sqrt{0.015876 + 0.000441 + 0.001323} = \sqrt{0.01764} \approx 0.133 \) or 13.3% Sharpe Ratio \( = \frac{0.099 – 0.02}{0.133} = \frac{0.079}{0.133} \approx 0.594 \) Allocation B (50% Equities, 50% Bonds): Portfolio Return \( (R_p) = (0.50 \times 12\%) + (0.50 \times 5\%) = 6\% + 2.5\% = 8.5\% \) Portfolio Standard Deviation \( (\sigma_p) = \sqrt{(0.50^2 \times 0.18^2) + (0.50^2 \times 0.07^2) + (2 \times 0.50 \times 0.50 \times 0.18 \times 0.07 \times 0.25)} \) \( \sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.25 \times 0.0324) + (0.25 \times 0.0049) + (0.001575)} \) \( \sigma_p = \sqrt{0.0081 + 0.001225 + 0.001575} = \sqrt{0.0109} \approx 0.1044 \) or 10.44% Sharpe Ratio \( = \frac{0.085 – 0.02}{0.1044} = \frac{0.065}{0.1044} \approx 0.623 \) Allocation C (30% Equities, 70% Bonds): Portfolio Return \( (R_p) = (0.30 \times 12\%) + (0.70 \times 5\%) = 3.6\% + 3.5\% = 7.1\% \) Portfolio Standard Deviation \( (\sigma_p) = \sqrt{(0.30^2 \times 0.18^2) + (0.70^2 \times 0.07^2) + (2 \times 0.30 \times 0.70 \times 0.18 \times 0.07 \times 0.25)} \) \( \sigma_p = \sqrt{(0.09 \times 0.0324) + (0.49 \times 0.0049) + (0.0004725)} \) \( \sigma_p = \sqrt{0.002916 + 0.002401 + 0.0004725} = \sqrt{0.0057895} \approx 0.0761 \) or 7.61% Sharpe Ratio \( = \frac{0.071 – 0.02}{0.0761} = \frac{0.051}{0.0761} \approx 0.670 \) Allocation D (100% Bonds): Portfolio Return \( (R_p) = 5\% \) Portfolio Standard Deviation \( (\sigma_p) = 7\% \) Sharpe Ratio \( = \frac{0.05 – 0.02}{0.07} = \frac{0.03}{0.07} \approx 0.429 \) Comparing the Sharpe Ratios: Allocation A: 0.594 Allocation B: 0.623 Allocation C: 0.670 Allocation D: 0.429 Allocation C has the highest Sharpe Ratio (0.670), indicating the best risk-adjusted return.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Fund X is being evaluated by a potential investor. Over the past year, Fund X has delivered a return of 15% with a standard deviation of 12%. During the same period, the risk-free rate was 2%, and the market return was 10% with a standard deviation of 9%. The covariance between Fund X and the market is 0.0108. Based on this information, the investor wants to assess the fund’s risk-adjusted performance and its relationship to the market. Calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Beta, and Alpha for Fund X, and determine which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the fund’s performance metrics. Note that Alpha should be expressed as a percentage.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as the difference between the portfolio’s return and the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio compared to its benchmark, adjusted for risk. A positive alpha suggests the portfolio has outperformed its benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Beta measures a portfolio’s sensitivity to market movements. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio’s price will move in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests it will be more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 suggests it will be less volatile. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Beta for Fund X. 1. **Sharpe Ratio:** The Sharpe Ratio is calculated as \(\frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\), where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio’s standard deviation. \[\text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.15 – 0.02}{0.12} = \frac{0.13}{0.12} = 1.0833\] 2. **Beta:** Beta is calculated as \(\frac{\text{Covariance of Portfolio and Market}}{\text{Variance of Market}}\). The covariance of the portfolio and the market is 0.0108, and the variance of the market is 0.0081. \[\text{Beta} = \frac{0.0108}{0.0081} = 1.3333\] 3. **Alpha:** Alpha is calculated using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM): \(\alpha = R_p – [R_f + \beta(R_m – R_f)]\), where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, \(R_m\) is the market return, and \(\beta\) is the portfolio’s beta. \[\alpha = 0.15 – [0.02 + 1.3333(0.10 – 0.02)] = 0.15 – [0.02 + 1.3333(0.08)] = 0.15 – [0.02 + 0.106664] = 0.15 – 0.126664 = 0.023336\] Therefore, Alpha is approximately 2.33%.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as the difference between the portfolio’s return and the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio compared to its benchmark, adjusted for risk. A positive alpha suggests the portfolio has outperformed its benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Beta measures a portfolio’s sensitivity to market movements. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio’s price will move in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests it will be more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 suggests it will be less volatile. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Beta for Fund X. 1. **Sharpe Ratio:** The Sharpe Ratio is calculated as \(\frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\), where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio’s standard deviation. \[\text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.15 – 0.02}{0.12} = \frac{0.13}{0.12} = 1.0833\] 2. **Beta:** Beta is calculated as \(\frac{\text{Covariance of Portfolio and Market}}{\text{Variance of Market}}\). The covariance of the portfolio and the market is 0.0108, and the variance of the market is 0.0081. \[\text{Beta} = \frac{0.0108}{0.0081} = 1.3333\] 3. **Alpha:** Alpha is calculated using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM): \(\alpha = R_p – [R_f + \beta(R_m – R_f)]\), where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, \(R_m\) is the market return, and \(\beta\) is the portfolio’s beta. \[\alpha = 0.15 – [0.02 + 1.3333(0.10 – 0.02)] = 0.15 – [0.02 + 1.3333(0.08)] = 0.15 – [0.02 + 0.106664] = 0.15 – 0.126664 = 0.023336\] Therefore, Alpha is approximately 2.33%.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
A fund manager, Amelia Stone, manages a diversified equity fund. Over the past year, the fund achieved a return of 15%. During the same period, the risk-free rate was 2%, and the benchmark index returned 10%. The fund’s standard deviation was 12%, and its beta was 1.2. Amelia is presenting her performance to the investment committee and wants to highlight the fund’s risk-adjusted returns and excess return compared to the benchmark. The committee wants to understand the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio to evaluate Amelia’s performance. Considering the fund’s characteristics, what are the fund’s Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, and Treynor Ratio, respectively, and how do these metrics collectively inform the committee about Amelia’s performance?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. It quantifies the value added by the fund manager’s skill. Beta measures a portfolio’s sensitivity to market movements. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility than the market. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio to assess the fund manager’s performance. Sharpe Ratio helps to understand how much excess return is being generated for each unit of total risk. Alpha helps to understand how much excess return is being generated compared to the benchmark index. Beta helps to understand the volatility of the fund. Treynor Ratio helps to understand the risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. First, calculate the Sharpe Ratio: (15% – 2%) / 12% = 1.0833. Next, calculate Alpha: 15% – (2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%)) = 15% – (2% + 9.6%) = 3.4%. Next, calculate the Treynor Ratio: (15% – 2%) / 1.2 = 10.833%. Therefore, the Sharpe Ratio is 1.08, Alpha is 3.4%, and the Treynor Ratio is 10.83%. These metrics provide a comprehensive view of the fund manager’s performance, considering both risk and return. A higher Sharpe Ratio and Treynor Ratio, along with a positive Alpha, generally indicate superior performance.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. It quantifies the value added by the fund manager’s skill. Beta measures a portfolio’s sensitivity to market movements. A beta of 1 indicates the portfolio moves in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests higher volatility than the market. The Treynor Ratio measures risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. It’s calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Beta. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio to assess the fund manager’s performance. Sharpe Ratio helps to understand how much excess return is being generated for each unit of total risk. Alpha helps to understand how much excess return is being generated compared to the benchmark index. Beta helps to understand the volatility of the fund. Treynor Ratio helps to understand the risk-adjusted return using beta as the risk measure. First, calculate the Sharpe Ratio: (15% – 2%) / 12% = 1.0833. Next, calculate Alpha: 15% – (2% + 1.2 * (10% – 2%)) = 15% – (2% + 9.6%) = 3.4%. Next, calculate the Treynor Ratio: (15% – 2%) / 1.2 = 10.833%. Therefore, the Sharpe Ratio is 1.08, Alpha is 3.4%, and the Treynor Ratio is 10.83%. These metrics provide a comprehensive view of the fund manager’s performance, considering both risk and return. A higher Sharpe Ratio and Treynor Ratio, along with a positive Alpha, generally indicate superior performance.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
A fund manager, Emily, manages a portfolio with an expected return of 12% and a standard deviation of 15%. The risk-free rate is 2%. Emily is considering adding a new investment opportunity to the portfolio, which has an expected return of 18% and a standard deviation of 25%. The correlation between the existing portfolio and the new investment is 0.4. Emily aims to maximize the Sharpe ratio of the combined portfolio. Given the information above and considering UK regulatory standards for risk management, which statement best describes the likely impact on the Sharpe ratio of the combined portfolio compared to the Sharpe ratio of Emily’s existing portfolio? Assume that the fund is compliant with FCA regulations regarding risk disclosures and client suitability.
Correct
Let’s analyze the Sharpe ratio and its implications for portfolio selection. The Sharpe ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return an investor receives for each unit of risk taken. It is calculated as: \[ Sharpe\ Ratio = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where: * \( R_p \) = Portfolio return * \( R_f \) = Risk-free rate * \( \sigma_p \) = Portfolio standard deviation (risk) In this scenario, we need to determine the optimal portfolio allocation between the existing portfolio and a new investment opportunity to maximize the overall Sharpe ratio, considering the correlation between the two. First, we calculate the Sharpe ratio of the existing portfolio: \[ Sharpe\ Ratio_{existing} = \frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.15} = \frac{0.10}{0.15} = 0.6667 \] Next, we calculate the Sharpe ratio of the new investment: \[ Sharpe\ Ratio_{new} = \frac{0.18 – 0.02}{0.25} = \frac{0.16}{0.25} = 0.64 \] Now, we consider the correlation between the existing portfolio and the new investment, which is 0.4. The optimal allocation to maximize the portfolio Sharpe ratio can be determined using a portfolio optimization approach. We can think of this like mixing two cocktails. One cocktail (existing portfolio) has a good flavor (Sharpe ratio), and the other (new investment) also has a decent flavor. If they are not perfectly correlated (like ingredients that don’t quite blend), combining them in the right proportions can create a smoother, more enjoyable drink (higher Sharpe ratio). If they were perfectly correlated, it would be like adding more of the same ingredient – it wouldn’t improve the overall flavor profile. Since we don’t have the tools for a full optimization calculation, we can evaluate the impact of adding the new investment by comparing the Sharpe ratios and considering the correlation. The new investment has a slightly lower Sharpe ratio than the existing portfolio, but the low correlation (0.4) suggests that diversification benefits could improve the overall portfolio Sharpe ratio. The question requires us to determine the impact on the Sharpe ratio of the combined portfolio. Without the precise allocation, we can’t calculate the exact combined Sharpe ratio. However, given the positive correlation, the combined Sharpe ratio will likely be between the two individual Sharpe ratios, and the diversification benefits will be limited. The combined portfolio Sharpe ratio will be between 0.64 and 0.6667. The key takeaway is understanding how correlation impacts diversification benefits and the overall Sharpe ratio. A lower correlation would have provided greater diversification benefits.
Incorrect
Let’s analyze the Sharpe ratio and its implications for portfolio selection. The Sharpe ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return an investor receives for each unit of risk taken. It is calculated as: \[ Sharpe\ Ratio = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p} \] Where: * \( R_p \) = Portfolio return * \( R_f \) = Risk-free rate * \( \sigma_p \) = Portfolio standard deviation (risk) In this scenario, we need to determine the optimal portfolio allocation between the existing portfolio and a new investment opportunity to maximize the overall Sharpe ratio, considering the correlation between the two. First, we calculate the Sharpe ratio of the existing portfolio: \[ Sharpe\ Ratio_{existing} = \frac{0.12 – 0.02}{0.15} = \frac{0.10}{0.15} = 0.6667 \] Next, we calculate the Sharpe ratio of the new investment: \[ Sharpe\ Ratio_{new} = \frac{0.18 – 0.02}{0.25} = \frac{0.16}{0.25} = 0.64 \] Now, we consider the correlation between the existing portfolio and the new investment, which is 0.4. The optimal allocation to maximize the portfolio Sharpe ratio can be determined using a portfolio optimization approach. We can think of this like mixing two cocktails. One cocktail (existing portfolio) has a good flavor (Sharpe ratio), and the other (new investment) also has a decent flavor. If they are not perfectly correlated (like ingredients that don’t quite blend), combining them in the right proportions can create a smoother, more enjoyable drink (higher Sharpe ratio). If they were perfectly correlated, it would be like adding more of the same ingredient – it wouldn’t improve the overall flavor profile. Since we don’t have the tools for a full optimization calculation, we can evaluate the impact of adding the new investment by comparing the Sharpe ratios and considering the correlation. The new investment has a slightly lower Sharpe ratio than the existing portfolio, but the low correlation (0.4) suggests that diversification benefits could improve the overall portfolio Sharpe ratio. The question requires us to determine the impact on the Sharpe ratio of the combined portfolio. Without the precise allocation, we can’t calculate the exact combined Sharpe ratio. However, given the positive correlation, the combined Sharpe ratio will likely be between the two individual Sharpe ratios, and the diversification benefits will be limited. The combined portfolio Sharpe ratio will be between 0.64 and 0.6667. The key takeaway is understanding how correlation impacts diversification benefits and the overall Sharpe ratio. A lower correlation would have provided greater diversification benefits.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
An investment fund, “Global Growth Pioneers,” initially allocates its portfolio with 60% in Asset A (a tech stock with a beta of 1.2) and 40% in Asset B (a utility stock with a beta of 0.8). The fund manager uses the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) for asset allocation decisions. The current risk-free rate is 2%, and the expected market return is 8%. After one year, Asset A has increased in value by 15%, while Asset B has increased by 5%. The fund’s policy mandates an annual rebalancing to the original asset allocation. Given this scenario, what is the *most accurate* statement regarding the fund’s expected return *immediately after* the rebalancing, considering the application of CAPM and the fund’s investment strategy? Assume no transaction costs or taxes.
Correct
Let’s break down how to calculate the expected return of a portfolio using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and then assess the impact of rebalancing. First, we calculate the expected return for each asset using CAPM: \[E(R_i) = R_f + \beta_i (E(R_m) – R_f)\] Where: * \(E(R_i)\) is the expected return of asset *i* * \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate * \(\beta_i\) is the beta of asset *i* * \(E(R_m)\) is the expected return of the market For Asset A: \[E(R_A) = 0.02 + 1.2(0.08 – 0.02) = 0.02 + 1.2(0.06) = 0.02 + 0.072 = 0.092 \text{ or } 9.2\%\] For Asset B: \[E(R_B) = 0.02 + 0.8(0.08 – 0.02) = 0.02 + 0.8(0.06) = 0.02 + 0.048 = 0.068 \text{ or } 6.8\%\] Initial Portfolio Expected Return: The initial portfolio is 60% Asset A and 40% Asset B. \[E(R_P) = (0.6 \times 0.092) + (0.4 \times 0.068) = 0.0552 + 0.0272 = 0.0824 \text{ or } 8.24\%\] After one year, the portfolio weights shift due to different returns. Asset A appreciates by 15%, and Asset B appreciates by 5%. New Value of Asset A: \(0.6 \times (1 + 0.15) = 0.6 \times 1.15 = 0.69\) New Value of Asset B: \(0.4 \times (1 + 0.05) = 0.4 \times 1.05 = 0.42\) Total Portfolio Value: \(0.69 + 0.42 = 1.11\) New Portfolio Weights: Weight of Asset A: \(\frac{0.69}{1.11} \approx 0.6216\) Weight of Asset B: \(\frac{0.42}{1.11} \approx 0.3784\) The portfolio is rebalanced back to 60% Asset A and 40% Asset B. This involves selling a portion of Asset A and buying Asset B. The act of rebalancing itself doesn’t directly change the expected returns *of the individual assets*. CAPM still dictates those returns based on beta, risk-free rate, and market return. Rebalancing only adjusts the *portfolio’s* overall expected return by altering the weights of assets with different expected returns. Because Asset A has a higher expected return (9.2%) than Asset B (6.8%), shifting weight *back* into Asset A *increases* the portfolio’s expected return compared to what it would have been *without* rebalancing. The new portfolio expected return *after rebalancing* remains the same as the initial expected return, which is 8.24%, because the asset allocation is brought back to the original 60/40 split.
Incorrect
Let’s break down how to calculate the expected return of a portfolio using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and then assess the impact of rebalancing. First, we calculate the expected return for each asset using CAPM: \[E(R_i) = R_f + \beta_i (E(R_m) – R_f)\] Where: * \(E(R_i)\) is the expected return of asset *i* * \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate * \(\beta_i\) is the beta of asset *i* * \(E(R_m)\) is the expected return of the market For Asset A: \[E(R_A) = 0.02 + 1.2(0.08 – 0.02) = 0.02 + 1.2(0.06) = 0.02 + 0.072 = 0.092 \text{ or } 9.2\%\] For Asset B: \[E(R_B) = 0.02 + 0.8(0.08 – 0.02) = 0.02 + 0.8(0.06) = 0.02 + 0.048 = 0.068 \text{ or } 6.8\%\] Initial Portfolio Expected Return: The initial portfolio is 60% Asset A and 40% Asset B. \[E(R_P) = (0.6 \times 0.092) + (0.4 \times 0.068) = 0.0552 + 0.0272 = 0.0824 \text{ or } 8.24\%\] After one year, the portfolio weights shift due to different returns. Asset A appreciates by 15%, and Asset B appreciates by 5%. New Value of Asset A: \(0.6 \times (1 + 0.15) = 0.6 \times 1.15 = 0.69\) New Value of Asset B: \(0.4 \times (1 + 0.05) = 0.4 \times 1.05 = 0.42\) Total Portfolio Value: \(0.69 + 0.42 = 1.11\) New Portfolio Weights: Weight of Asset A: \(\frac{0.69}{1.11} \approx 0.6216\) Weight of Asset B: \(\frac{0.42}{1.11} \approx 0.3784\) The portfolio is rebalanced back to 60% Asset A and 40% Asset B. This involves selling a portion of Asset A and buying Asset B. The act of rebalancing itself doesn’t directly change the expected returns *of the individual assets*. CAPM still dictates those returns based on beta, risk-free rate, and market return. Rebalancing only adjusts the *portfolio’s* overall expected return by altering the weights of assets with different expected returns. Because Asset A has a higher expected return (9.2%) than Asset B (6.8%), shifting weight *back* into Asset A *increases* the portfolio’s expected return compared to what it would have been *without* rebalancing. The new portfolio expected return *after rebalancing* remains the same as the initial expected return, which is 8.24%, because the asset allocation is brought back to the original 60/40 split.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Penelope is a financial advisor at “SecureFuture Investments,” tasked with recommending a suitable investment portfolio for a new client, Mr. Abernathy, who is highly risk-averse. Mr. Abernathy emphasizes capital preservation and consistent returns over aggressive growth. Penelope is evaluating two portfolios, Portfolio A and Portfolio B, using various performance metrics. Portfolio A has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.2, an Alpha of 3%, a Beta of 0.8, and a Treynor Ratio of 8%. Portfolio B has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.9, an Alpha of 5%, a Beta of 1.2, and a Treynor Ratio of 6%. Considering Mr. Abernathy’s risk aversion, which portfolio should Penelope recommend and why?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as the difference between the portfolio’s return and the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. A positive alpha suggests the investment has outperformed the benchmark, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Beta measures the systematic risk, or volatility, of a security or portfolio compared to the market as a whole. A beta of 1 indicates the investment’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 suggests the investment is more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates less volatility. The Treynor ratio is a risk-adjusted performance measure that uses beta as a measure of systematic risk. It’s calculated as the portfolio’s return less the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s beta. A higher Treynor ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. In this scenario, we have the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio of Portfolio A and Portfolio B. We need to determine which portfolio is most suitable for a risk-averse investor. A risk-averse investor prioritizes minimizing risk while achieving a reasonable return. Therefore, we need to consider the risk-adjusted performance measures. Portfolio A has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.2, Alpha of 3%, Beta of 0.8, and Treynor Ratio of 8%. Portfolio B has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.9, Alpha of 5%, Beta of 1.2, and Treynor Ratio of 6%. Sharpe Ratio: Portfolio A has a higher Sharpe Ratio (1.2) than Portfolio B (0.9), indicating better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha: Portfolio B has a higher Alpha (5%) than Portfolio A (3%), suggesting it has generated more excess return relative to its benchmark. Beta: Portfolio A has a lower Beta (0.8) than Portfolio B (1.2), indicating it is less volatile than the market. Treynor Ratio: Portfolio A has a higher Treynor Ratio (8%) than Portfolio B (6%), indicating better risk-adjusted performance considering systematic risk. Considering these factors, Portfolio A is more suitable for a risk-averse investor because it has a higher Sharpe Ratio and Treynor Ratio, indicating better risk-adjusted performance, and a lower Beta, indicating lower volatility.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as the difference between the portfolio’s return and the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of an investment relative to a benchmark index. A positive alpha suggests the investment has outperformed the benchmark, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. Beta measures the systematic risk, or volatility, of a security or portfolio compared to the market as a whole. A beta of 1 indicates the investment’s price will move with the market. A beta greater than 1 suggests the investment is more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates less volatility. The Treynor ratio is a risk-adjusted performance measure that uses beta as a measure of systematic risk. It’s calculated as the portfolio’s return less the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s beta. A higher Treynor ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. In this scenario, we have the Sharpe Ratio, Alpha, Beta, and Treynor Ratio of Portfolio A and Portfolio B. We need to determine which portfolio is most suitable for a risk-averse investor. A risk-averse investor prioritizes minimizing risk while achieving a reasonable return. Therefore, we need to consider the risk-adjusted performance measures. Portfolio A has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.2, Alpha of 3%, Beta of 0.8, and Treynor Ratio of 8%. Portfolio B has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.9, Alpha of 5%, Beta of 1.2, and Treynor Ratio of 6%. Sharpe Ratio: Portfolio A has a higher Sharpe Ratio (1.2) than Portfolio B (0.9), indicating better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha: Portfolio B has a higher Alpha (5%) than Portfolio A (3%), suggesting it has generated more excess return relative to its benchmark. Beta: Portfolio A has a lower Beta (0.8) than Portfolio B (1.2), indicating it is less volatile than the market. Treynor Ratio: Portfolio A has a higher Treynor Ratio (8%) than Portfolio B (6%), indicating better risk-adjusted performance considering systematic risk. Considering these factors, Portfolio A is more suitable for a risk-averse investor because it has a higher Sharpe Ratio and Treynor Ratio, indicating better risk-adjusted performance, and a lower Beta, indicating lower volatility.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
A fund manager, Amelia, manages a balanced portfolio with an initial allocation of 50% equities and 50% fixed income, valued at £1,000,000. In the first year, equities experience a return of 15%, while fixed income returns 3%. Amelia decides to rebalance the portfolio back to its original 50/50 allocation at the end of the first year. In the second year, equities again return 15%, and fixed income returns 3%. Assume no transaction costs or tax implications. What is the difference in the portfolio’s total value at the end of the two-year period if Amelia *did* rebalance at the end of the first year, compared to if she *did not* rebalance at all during the two-year period? Show the calculations.
Correct
To determine the impact of the rebalancing strategy, we must calculate the portfolio value under both scenarios: with and without rebalancing. **Scenario 1: Without Rebalancing** * **Equity Growth:** £500,000 * 1.15 = £575,000 * **Bond Growth:** £500,000 * 1.03 = £515,000 * **Total Portfolio Value:** £575,000 + £515,000 = £1,090,000 * **Equity Percentage:** (£575,000 / £1,090,000) * 100% ≈ 52.75% * **Bond Percentage:** (£515,000 / £1,090,000) * 100% ≈ 47.25% **Scenario 2: With Rebalancing** * Rebalancing back to 50/50 after one year means each asset class has 50% of the total portfolio value (£1,090,000). * **Equity Value After Rebalancing:** £1,090,000 * 0.50 = £545,000 * **Bond Value After Rebalancing:** £1,090,000 * 0.50 = £545,000 * **Year 2 Equity Growth:** £545,000 * 1.15 = £626,750 * **Year 2 Bond Growth:** £545,000 * 1.03 = £561,350 * **Total Portfolio Value After Two Years (with rebalancing):** £626,750 + £561,350 = £1,188,100 **Scenario 3: Without Rebalancing After Year 1** * **Equity Growth:** £575,000 * 1.15 = £661,250 * **Bond Growth:** £515,000 * 1.03 = £530,450 * **Total Portfolio Value:** £661,250 + £530,450 = £1,191,700 **Difference** * £1,191,700 – £1,188,100 = £3,600 Rebalancing, in this specific scenario, results in a slightly lower portfolio value. This outcome highlights that rebalancing does not guarantee higher returns, but rather aims to manage risk and maintain the desired asset allocation. The specific returns of each asset class in each period dictate whether rebalancing enhances or detracts from overall portfolio performance. Rebalancing is particularly crucial when significant market movements cause a portfolio’s asset allocation to drift substantially from its target, potentially altering its risk profile. This example uses simplified annual returns. In reality, fund managers must consider transaction costs, tax implications, and the frequency of rebalancing. More frequent rebalancing incurs higher costs but keeps the portfolio closer to its target allocation. The optimal rebalancing strategy depends on the investor’s risk tolerance, investment goals, and the characteristics of the assets in the portfolio.
Incorrect
To determine the impact of the rebalancing strategy, we must calculate the portfolio value under both scenarios: with and without rebalancing. **Scenario 1: Without Rebalancing** * **Equity Growth:** £500,000 * 1.15 = £575,000 * **Bond Growth:** £500,000 * 1.03 = £515,000 * **Total Portfolio Value:** £575,000 + £515,000 = £1,090,000 * **Equity Percentage:** (£575,000 / £1,090,000) * 100% ≈ 52.75% * **Bond Percentage:** (£515,000 / £1,090,000) * 100% ≈ 47.25% **Scenario 2: With Rebalancing** * Rebalancing back to 50/50 after one year means each asset class has 50% of the total portfolio value (£1,090,000). * **Equity Value After Rebalancing:** £1,090,000 * 0.50 = £545,000 * **Bond Value After Rebalancing:** £1,090,000 * 0.50 = £545,000 * **Year 2 Equity Growth:** £545,000 * 1.15 = £626,750 * **Year 2 Bond Growth:** £545,000 * 1.03 = £561,350 * **Total Portfolio Value After Two Years (with rebalancing):** £626,750 + £561,350 = £1,188,100 **Scenario 3: Without Rebalancing After Year 1** * **Equity Growth:** £575,000 * 1.15 = £661,250 * **Bond Growth:** £515,000 * 1.03 = £530,450 * **Total Portfolio Value:** £661,250 + £530,450 = £1,191,700 **Difference** * £1,191,700 – £1,188,100 = £3,600 Rebalancing, in this specific scenario, results in a slightly lower portfolio value. This outcome highlights that rebalancing does not guarantee higher returns, but rather aims to manage risk and maintain the desired asset allocation. The specific returns of each asset class in each period dictate whether rebalancing enhances or detracts from overall portfolio performance. Rebalancing is particularly crucial when significant market movements cause a portfolio’s asset allocation to drift substantially from its target, potentially altering its risk profile. This example uses simplified annual returns. In reality, fund managers must consider transaction costs, tax implications, and the frequency of rebalancing. More frequent rebalancing incurs higher costs but keeps the portfolio closer to its target allocation. The optimal rebalancing strategy depends on the investor’s risk tolerance, investment goals, and the characteristics of the assets in the portfolio.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
A fund manager at a UK-based investment firm is constructing portfolios for clients with varying risk tolerances. She is considering four different asset allocation strategies, each with a different mix of equities, fixed income, and alternative investments. The portfolios have the following expected returns and standard deviations: Portfolio A: Expected Return 12%, Standard Deviation 15% Portfolio B: Expected Return 10%, Standard Deviation 10% Portfolio C: Expected Return 8%, Standard Deviation 7% Portfolio D: Expected Return 14%, Standard Deviation 20% The current risk-free rate, as indicated by UK government bonds, is 3%. According to FCA guidelines on suitability, which portfolio is most suitable for a client seeking the highest risk-adjusted return, as measured by the Sharpe Ratio, while adhering to best execution principles?
Correct
To determine the optimal asset allocation, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for each portfolio and select the one with the highest Sharpe Ratio. The Sharpe Ratio is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 15% = 0.6 Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (10% – 3%) / 10% = 0.7 Portfolio C: Sharpe Ratio = (8% – 3%) / 7% = 0.714 Portfolio D: Sharpe Ratio = (14% – 3%) / 20% = 0.55 The portfolio with the highest Sharpe Ratio is Portfolio C, with a Sharpe Ratio of 0.714. This indicates that Portfolio C provides the best risk-adjusted return. The Sharpe Ratio is a crucial metric for evaluating investment performance. It quantifies the excess return an investment generates per unit of total risk. A higher Sharpe Ratio suggests better risk-adjusted performance. Consider two hypothetical investments: a volatile tech stock and a stable bond fund. The tech stock might offer higher returns, but it also carries significantly higher risk. The Sharpe Ratio helps investors determine whether the higher return compensates for the increased risk. Imagine a scenario where a fund manager is considering two investment strategies: one focused on high-growth emerging markets and another on established blue-chip companies. The emerging markets strategy promises potentially higher returns but also involves greater volatility due to political and economic uncertainties. The blue-chip strategy offers more stable returns but with less growth potential. By calculating and comparing the Sharpe Ratios of these two strategies, the fund manager can make a more informed decision about which strategy aligns better with the fund’s risk tolerance and return objectives. The Sharpe Ratio’s effectiveness depends on the accuracy of the inputs, especially the standard deviation, which measures total risk. If the standard deviation is underestimated, the Sharpe Ratio will be artificially inflated, leading to a potentially misleading assessment of the investment’s risk-adjusted performance. Furthermore, the Sharpe Ratio assumes that returns are normally distributed, which may not always be the case, especially for alternative investments like hedge funds or private equity. In such cases, other risk-adjusted performance measures, such as the Sortino Ratio or the Treynor Ratio, might be more appropriate.
Incorrect
To determine the optimal asset allocation, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for each portfolio and select the one with the highest Sharpe Ratio. The Sharpe Ratio is calculated as (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 3%) / 15% = 0.6 Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (10% – 3%) / 10% = 0.7 Portfolio C: Sharpe Ratio = (8% – 3%) / 7% = 0.714 Portfolio D: Sharpe Ratio = (14% – 3%) / 20% = 0.55 The portfolio with the highest Sharpe Ratio is Portfolio C, with a Sharpe Ratio of 0.714. This indicates that Portfolio C provides the best risk-adjusted return. The Sharpe Ratio is a crucial metric for evaluating investment performance. It quantifies the excess return an investment generates per unit of total risk. A higher Sharpe Ratio suggests better risk-adjusted performance. Consider two hypothetical investments: a volatile tech stock and a stable bond fund. The tech stock might offer higher returns, but it also carries significantly higher risk. The Sharpe Ratio helps investors determine whether the higher return compensates for the increased risk. Imagine a scenario where a fund manager is considering two investment strategies: one focused on high-growth emerging markets and another on established blue-chip companies. The emerging markets strategy promises potentially higher returns but also involves greater volatility due to political and economic uncertainties. The blue-chip strategy offers more stable returns but with less growth potential. By calculating and comparing the Sharpe Ratios of these two strategies, the fund manager can make a more informed decision about which strategy aligns better with the fund’s risk tolerance and return objectives. The Sharpe Ratio’s effectiveness depends on the accuracy of the inputs, especially the standard deviation, which measures total risk. If the standard deviation is underestimated, the Sharpe Ratio will be artificially inflated, leading to a potentially misleading assessment of the investment’s risk-adjusted performance. Furthermore, the Sharpe Ratio assumes that returns are normally distributed, which may not always be the case, especially for alternative investments like hedge funds or private equity. In such cases, other risk-adjusted performance measures, such as the Sortino Ratio or the Treynor Ratio, might be more appropriate.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Two fund managers, Emily and David, are comparing the performance of their respective portfolios. Emily’s portfolio, consisting primarily of technology stocks, has delivered an average return of 12% over the past year, with a standard deviation of 8%. David’s portfolio, which is more diversified across various sectors, has achieved an average return of 15% with a standard deviation of 12%. The current risk-free rate is 2%. Considering the risk-adjusted performance of both portfolios, as measured by the Sharpe Ratio, by how much does Emily’s portfolio’s Sharpe Ratio exceed David’s portfolio’s Sharpe Ratio?
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as the difference between the portfolio’s return and the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Rp – Rf) / σp, where Rp is the portfolio return, Rf is the risk-free rate, and σp is the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted performance. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for both portfolios and then determine the difference. Portfolio A: Rp = 12%, Rf = 2%, σp = 8% Sharpe Ratio A = (12% – 2%) / 8% = 10% / 8% = 1.25 Portfolio B: Rp = 15%, Rf = 2%, σp = 12% Sharpe Ratio B = (15% – 2%) / 12% = 13% / 12% = 1.0833 Difference in Sharpe Ratios = Sharpe Ratio A – Sharpe Ratio B = 1.25 – 1.0833 = 0.1667 Therefore, Portfolio A has a Sharpe Ratio that is approximately 0.1667 higher than Portfolio B. This means that for each unit of risk taken, Portfolio A provides a higher excess return compared to Portfolio B. Imagine two farmers, Alice and Bob. Alice invests in a stable crop (Portfolio B) that yields a consistent profit every year, while Bob invests in a more volatile crop (Portfolio A) that can have boom or bust years. If both farmers make the same profit relative to the risk-free rate, Bob is taking more risk to achieve the same return. However, if Bob’s riskier crop provides a higher return per unit of risk (higher Sharpe ratio), it suggests that Bob’s strategy is more efficient in generating returns for the level of risk he undertakes. This highlights the essence of the Sharpe Ratio in comparing investment opportunities.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. It is calculated as the difference between the portfolio’s return and the risk-free rate, divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Rp – Rf) / σp, where Rp is the portfolio return, Rf is the risk-free rate, and σp is the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted performance. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for both portfolios and then determine the difference. Portfolio A: Rp = 12%, Rf = 2%, σp = 8% Sharpe Ratio A = (12% – 2%) / 8% = 10% / 8% = 1.25 Portfolio B: Rp = 15%, Rf = 2%, σp = 12% Sharpe Ratio B = (15% – 2%) / 12% = 13% / 12% = 1.0833 Difference in Sharpe Ratios = Sharpe Ratio A – Sharpe Ratio B = 1.25 – 1.0833 = 0.1667 Therefore, Portfolio A has a Sharpe Ratio that is approximately 0.1667 higher than Portfolio B. This means that for each unit of risk taken, Portfolio A provides a higher excess return compared to Portfolio B. Imagine two farmers, Alice and Bob. Alice invests in a stable crop (Portfolio B) that yields a consistent profit every year, while Bob invests in a more volatile crop (Portfolio A) that can have boom or bust years. If both farmers make the same profit relative to the risk-free rate, Bob is taking more risk to achieve the same return. However, if Bob’s riskier crop provides a higher return per unit of risk (higher Sharpe ratio), it suggests that Bob’s strategy is more efficient in generating returns for the level of risk he undertakes. This highlights the essence of the Sharpe Ratio in comparing investment opportunities.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
A fund manager is constructing a strategic asset allocation for a client with a moderate risk tolerance. The investment universe consists of two asset classes: Equities and Fixed Income. Equities have an expected return of 8% and a standard deviation of 12%. Fixed Income has an expected return of 4% and a standard deviation of 5%. The correlation between Equities and Fixed Income is 0.2. The risk-free rate is 2%. Given the information above, which of the following asset allocations would be considered the most efficient based on the Sharpe Ratio?
Correct
To determine the optimal strategic asset allocation, we must consider the investor’s risk tolerance, return objectives, and the correlation between asset classes. The Sharpe Ratio is a key metric for evaluating risk-adjusted returns. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better performance relative to the risk taken. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: \[\text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\] where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio standard deviation. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for each proposed asset allocation and select the one that maximizes risk-adjusted returns while aligning with the investor’s risk profile. First, calculate the portfolio return for each allocation by weighting the expected return of each asset class by its allocation percentage and summing the results. Second, calculate the portfolio standard deviation, considering the correlation between asset classes. The formula for portfolio variance with two assets is: \[\sigma_p^2 = w_A^2 \sigma_A^2 + w_B^2 \sigma_B^2 + 2w_A w_B \rho_{AB} \sigma_A \sigma_B\] where \(w_A\) and \(w_B\) are the weights of assets A and B, \(\sigma_A\) and \(\sigma_B\) are the standard deviations of assets A and B, and \(\rho_{AB}\) is the correlation between assets A and B. The portfolio standard deviation is the square root of the portfolio variance. Third, calculate the Sharpe Ratio for each allocation using the formula above. The allocation with the highest Sharpe Ratio is the most efficient in terms of risk-adjusted return. For Allocation A: Portfolio Return = (0.6 * 0.08) + (0.4 * 0.04) = 0.048 + 0.016 = 0.064 or 6.4% Portfolio Variance = \((0.6^2 * 0.12^2) + (0.4^2 * 0.05^2) + (2 * 0.6 * 0.4 * 0.2 * 0.12 * 0.05)\) = 0.005184 + 0.0004 + 0.000576 = 0.00616 Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.00616}\) = 0.0785 or 7.85% Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.064 – 0.02}{0.0785}\) = \(\frac{0.044}{0.0785}\) = 0.5605 For Allocation B: Portfolio Return = (0.4 * 0.08) + (0.6 * 0.04) = 0.032 + 0.024 = 0.056 or 5.6% Portfolio Variance = \((0.4^2 * 0.12^2) + (0.6^2 * 0.05^2) + (2 * 0.4 * 0.6 * 0.2 * 0.12 * 0.05)\) = 0.002304 + 0.0009 + 0.000576 = 0.00378 Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.00378}\) = 0.0615 or 6.15% Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.056 – 0.02}{0.0615}\) = \(\frac{0.036}{0.0615}\) = 0.5854 For Allocation C: Portfolio Return = (0.8 * 0.08) + (0.2 * 0.04) = 0.064 + 0.008 = 0.072 or 7.2% Portfolio Variance = \((0.8^2 * 0.12^2) + (0.2^2 * 0.05^2) + (2 * 0.8 * 0.2 * 0.2 * 0.12 * 0.05)\) = 0.009216 + 0.0001 + 0.000384 = 0.0097 Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.0097}\) = 0.0985 or 9.85% Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.072 – 0.02}{0.0985}\) = \(\frac{0.052}{0.0985}\) = 0.5279 For Allocation D: Portfolio Return = (0.2 * 0.08) + (0.8 * 0.04) = 0.016 + 0.032 = 0.048 or 4.8% Portfolio Variance = \((0.2^2 * 0.12^2) + (0.8^2 * 0.05^2) + (2 * 0.2 * 0.8 * 0.2 * 0.12 * 0.05)\) = 0.000576 + 0.0016 + 0.000384 = 0.00256 Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.00256}\) = 0.0506 or 5.06% Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.048 – 0.02}{0.0506}\) = \(\frac{0.028}{0.0506}\) = 0.5534 Allocation B has the highest Sharpe Ratio (0.5854).
Incorrect
To determine the optimal strategic asset allocation, we must consider the investor’s risk tolerance, return objectives, and the correlation between asset classes. The Sharpe Ratio is a key metric for evaluating risk-adjusted returns. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better performance relative to the risk taken. The formula for the Sharpe Ratio is: \[\text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p – R_f}{\sigma_p}\] where \(R_p\) is the portfolio return, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(\sigma_p\) is the portfolio standard deviation. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for each proposed asset allocation and select the one that maximizes risk-adjusted returns while aligning with the investor’s risk profile. First, calculate the portfolio return for each allocation by weighting the expected return of each asset class by its allocation percentage and summing the results. Second, calculate the portfolio standard deviation, considering the correlation between asset classes. The formula for portfolio variance with two assets is: \[\sigma_p^2 = w_A^2 \sigma_A^2 + w_B^2 \sigma_B^2 + 2w_A w_B \rho_{AB} \sigma_A \sigma_B\] where \(w_A\) and \(w_B\) are the weights of assets A and B, \(\sigma_A\) and \(\sigma_B\) are the standard deviations of assets A and B, and \(\rho_{AB}\) is the correlation between assets A and B. The portfolio standard deviation is the square root of the portfolio variance. Third, calculate the Sharpe Ratio for each allocation using the formula above. The allocation with the highest Sharpe Ratio is the most efficient in terms of risk-adjusted return. For Allocation A: Portfolio Return = (0.6 * 0.08) + (0.4 * 0.04) = 0.048 + 0.016 = 0.064 or 6.4% Portfolio Variance = \((0.6^2 * 0.12^2) + (0.4^2 * 0.05^2) + (2 * 0.6 * 0.4 * 0.2 * 0.12 * 0.05)\) = 0.005184 + 0.0004 + 0.000576 = 0.00616 Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.00616}\) = 0.0785 or 7.85% Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.064 – 0.02}{0.0785}\) = \(\frac{0.044}{0.0785}\) = 0.5605 For Allocation B: Portfolio Return = (0.4 * 0.08) + (0.6 * 0.04) = 0.032 + 0.024 = 0.056 or 5.6% Portfolio Variance = \((0.4^2 * 0.12^2) + (0.6^2 * 0.05^2) + (2 * 0.4 * 0.6 * 0.2 * 0.12 * 0.05)\) = 0.002304 + 0.0009 + 0.000576 = 0.00378 Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.00378}\) = 0.0615 or 6.15% Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.056 – 0.02}{0.0615}\) = \(\frac{0.036}{0.0615}\) = 0.5854 For Allocation C: Portfolio Return = (0.8 * 0.08) + (0.2 * 0.04) = 0.064 + 0.008 = 0.072 or 7.2% Portfolio Variance = \((0.8^2 * 0.12^2) + (0.2^2 * 0.05^2) + (2 * 0.8 * 0.2 * 0.2 * 0.12 * 0.05)\) = 0.009216 + 0.0001 + 0.000384 = 0.0097 Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.0097}\) = 0.0985 or 9.85% Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.072 – 0.02}{0.0985}\) = \(\frac{0.052}{0.0985}\) = 0.5279 For Allocation D: Portfolio Return = (0.2 * 0.08) + (0.8 * 0.04) = 0.016 + 0.032 = 0.048 or 4.8% Portfolio Variance = \((0.2^2 * 0.12^2) + (0.8^2 * 0.05^2) + (2 * 0.2 * 0.8 * 0.2 * 0.12 * 0.05)\) = 0.000576 + 0.0016 + 0.000384 = 0.00256 Portfolio Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.00256}\) = 0.0506 or 5.06% Sharpe Ratio = \(\frac{0.048 – 0.02}{0.0506}\) = \(\frac{0.028}{0.0506}\) = 0.5534 Allocation B has the highest Sharpe Ratio (0.5854).
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A fund manager is constructing a strategic asset allocation for a client with a moderate risk tolerance. The manager is considering two asset classes: Equities and Fixed Income. The expected return for Equities is 10% with a standard deviation of 15%, while the expected return for Fixed Income is 5% with a standard deviation of 8%. The correlation between the two asset classes is 0.3. The risk-free rate is 2%. Considering the client’s moderate risk tolerance, which of the following asset allocations, as measured by the Sharpe Ratio, would be the MOST suitable? Portfolio A: 60% Equities, 40% Fixed Income Portfolio B: 40% Equities, 60% Fixed Income Portfolio C: 80% Equities, 20% Fixed Income Portfolio D: 20% Equities, 80% Fixed Income
Correct
To determine the optimal strategic asset allocation, we need to consider the investor’s risk tolerance, return objectives, and the correlation between asset classes. This problem combines Modern Portfolio Theory (MPT), risk-return tradeoff, and strategic asset allocation principles. We will calculate the portfolio’s expected return and standard deviation for each allocation scenario and then evaluate which allocation best suits the investor’s risk profile. The Sharpe ratio, which measures risk-adjusted return, is calculated as: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted return. In this case, a moderate risk tolerance suggests a balance between growth and capital preservation. The calculations involve using the provided expected returns, standard deviations, and correlations to determine the portfolio’s overall risk and return characteristics. For portfolio variance, we use the formula: Portfolio Variance = \(w_1^2\sigma_1^2 + w_2^2\sigma_2^2 + 2w_1w_2\rho_{1,2}\sigma_1\sigma_2\), where \(w_i\) is the weight of asset i, \(\sigma_i\) is the standard deviation of asset i, and \(\rho_{1,2}\) is the correlation between asset 1 and asset 2. The portfolio standard deviation is the square root of the portfolio variance. The portfolio return is calculated as the weighted average of the individual asset returns: Portfolio Return = \(w_1R_1 + w_2R_2\), where \(R_i\) is the expected return of asset i. By calculating the Sharpe ratio for each allocation, we can determine which portfolio provides the best risk-adjusted return, given the investor’s moderate risk tolerance. This involves a careful consideration of diversification benefits and the impact of correlation on overall portfolio risk. Portfolio A: Return = (0.6 * 0.10) + (0.4 * 0.05) = 0.08 or 8%. Portfolio A: Variance = \((0.6^2 * 0.15^2) + (0.4^2 * 0.08^2) + (2 * 0.6 * 0.4 * 0.3 * 0.15 * 0.08)\) = 0.011904. Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.011904}\) = 0.1091 or 10.91%. Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (0.08 – 0.02) / 0.1091 = 0.55. Portfolio B: Return = (0.4 * 0.10) + (0.6 * 0.05) = 0.07 or 7%. Portfolio B: Variance = \((0.4^2 * 0.15^2) + (0.6^2 * 0.08^2) + (2 * 0.4 * 0.6 * 0.3 * 0.15 * 0.08)\) = 0.006864. Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.006864}\) = 0.0828 or 8.28%. Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (0.07 – 0.02) / 0.0828 = 0.60. Portfolio C: Return = (0.8 * 0.10) + (0.2 * 0.05) = 0.09 or 9%. Portfolio C: Variance = \((0.8^2 * 0.15^2) + (0.2^2 * 0.08^2) + (2 * 0.8 * 0.2 * 0.3 * 0.15 * 0.08)\) = 0.015344. Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.015344}\) = 0.1239 or 12.39%. Portfolio C: Sharpe Ratio = (0.09 – 0.02) / 0.1239 = 0.56. Portfolio D: Return = (0.2 * 0.10) + (0.8 * 0.05) = 0.06 or 6%. Portfolio D: Variance = \((0.2^2 * 0.15^2) + (0.8^2 * 0.08^2) + (2 * 0.2 * 0.8 * 0.3 * 0.15 * 0.08)\) = 0.004456. Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.004456}\) = 0.0667 or 6.67%. Portfolio D: Sharpe Ratio = (0.06 – 0.02) / 0.0667 = 0.60.
Incorrect
To determine the optimal strategic asset allocation, we need to consider the investor’s risk tolerance, return objectives, and the correlation between asset classes. This problem combines Modern Portfolio Theory (MPT), risk-return tradeoff, and strategic asset allocation principles. We will calculate the portfolio’s expected return and standard deviation for each allocation scenario and then evaluate which allocation best suits the investor’s risk profile. The Sharpe ratio, which measures risk-adjusted return, is calculated as: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted return. In this case, a moderate risk tolerance suggests a balance between growth and capital preservation. The calculations involve using the provided expected returns, standard deviations, and correlations to determine the portfolio’s overall risk and return characteristics. For portfolio variance, we use the formula: Portfolio Variance = \(w_1^2\sigma_1^2 + w_2^2\sigma_2^2 + 2w_1w_2\rho_{1,2}\sigma_1\sigma_2\), where \(w_i\) is the weight of asset i, \(\sigma_i\) is the standard deviation of asset i, and \(\rho_{1,2}\) is the correlation between asset 1 and asset 2. The portfolio standard deviation is the square root of the portfolio variance. The portfolio return is calculated as the weighted average of the individual asset returns: Portfolio Return = \(w_1R_1 + w_2R_2\), where \(R_i\) is the expected return of asset i. By calculating the Sharpe ratio for each allocation, we can determine which portfolio provides the best risk-adjusted return, given the investor’s moderate risk tolerance. This involves a careful consideration of diversification benefits and the impact of correlation on overall portfolio risk. Portfolio A: Return = (0.6 * 0.10) + (0.4 * 0.05) = 0.08 or 8%. Portfolio A: Variance = \((0.6^2 * 0.15^2) + (0.4^2 * 0.08^2) + (2 * 0.6 * 0.4 * 0.3 * 0.15 * 0.08)\) = 0.011904. Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.011904}\) = 0.1091 or 10.91%. Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (0.08 – 0.02) / 0.1091 = 0.55. Portfolio B: Return = (0.4 * 0.10) + (0.6 * 0.05) = 0.07 or 7%. Portfolio B: Variance = \((0.4^2 * 0.15^2) + (0.6^2 * 0.08^2) + (2 * 0.4 * 0.6 * 0.3 * 0.15 * 0.08)\) = 0.006864. Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.006864}\) = 0.0828 or 8.28%. Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (0.07 – 0.02) / 0.0828 = 0.60. Portfolio C: Return = (0.8 * 0.10) + (0.2 * 0.05) = 0.09 or 9%. Portfolio C: Variance = \((0.8^2 * 0.15^2) + (0.2^2 * 0.08^2) + (2 * 0.8 * 0.2 * 0.3 * 0.15 * 0.08)\) = 0.015344. Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.015344}\) = 0.1239 or 12.39%. Portfolio C: Sharpe Ratio = (0.09 – 0.02) / 0.1239 = 0.56. Portfolio D: Return = (0.2 * 0.10) + (0.8 * 0.05) = 0.06 or 6%. Portfolio D: Variance = \((0.2^2 * 0.15^2) + (0.8^2 * 0.08^2) + (2 * 0.2 * 0.8 * 0.3 * 0.15 * 0.08)\) = 0.004456. Standard Deviation = \(\sqrt{0.004456}\) = 0.0667 or 6.67%. Portfolio D: Sharpe Ratio = (0.06 – 0.02) / 0.0667 = 0.60.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Two fund managers, Amelia and Ben, are evaluating the performance of their respective portfolios, Portfolio A and Portfolio B, against the broader market. Portfolio A achieved a return of 12% with a standard deviation of 15% and a beta of 0.8. Portfolio B achieved a return of 15% with a standard deviation of 20% and a beta of 1.2. The risk-free rate is currently 2%, and the market return is 10%. Considering Sharpe Ratio and Alpha as performance metrics, which portfolio demonstrates superior risk-adjusted performance and alpha generation, and what implications does this have for their investment strategies under the CISI Code of Ethics? Amelia and Ben must ensure that their investment decisions align with client’s best interest.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is earned for each unit of total risk (standard deviation). The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio compared to its benchmark, adjusted for risk. A positive alpha suggests the portfolio has outperformed its benchmark, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio A and Portfolio B. For Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 10% / 15% = 0.667 For Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 20% = 13% / 20% = 0.65 Next, we need to calculate the Alpha for Portfolio A and Portfolio B. Alpha = Portfolio Return – (Beta * Market Return + (1 – Beta) * Risk-Free Rate) For Portfolio A: Alpha = 12% – (0.8 * 10% + (1 – 0.8) * 2%) = 12% – (8% + 0.4%) = 12% – 8.4% = 3.6% For Portfolio B: Alpha = 15% – (1.2 * 10% + (1 – 1.2) * 2%) = 15% – (12% – 0.4%) = 15% – 11.6% = 3.4% Therefore, Portfolio A has a higher Sharpe Ratio (0.667 > 0.65) and a higher Alpha (3.6% > 3.4%).
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return, indicating how much excess return is earned for each unit of total risk (standard deviation). The formula is: Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return – Risk-Free Rate) / Portfolio Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. Alpha represents the excess return of a portfolio compared to its benchmark, adjusted for risk. A positive alpha suggests the portfolio has outperformed its benchmark, while a negative alpha indicates underperformance. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio A and Portfolio B. For Portfolio A: Sharpe Ratio = (12% – 2%) / 15% = 10% / 15% = 0.667 For Portfolio B: Sharpe Ratio = (15% – 2%) / 20% = 13% / 20% = 0.65 Next, we need to calculate the Alpha for Portfolio A and Portfolio B. Alpha = Portfolio Return – (Beta * Market Return + (1 – Beta) * Risk-Free Rate) For Portfolio A: Alpha = 12% – (0.8 * 10% + (1 – 0.8) * 2%) = 12% – (8% + 0.4%) = 12% – 8.4% = 3.6% For Portfolio B: Alpha = 15% – (1.2 * 10% + (1 – 1.2) * 2%) = 15% – (12% – 0.4%) = 15% – 11.6% = 3.4% Therefore, Portfolio A has a higher Sharpe Ratio (0.667 > 0.65) and a higher Alpha (3.6% > 3.4%).
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A fund manager, Amelia Stone, is evaluating the performance of her “Zenith Growth Fund” against its benchmark, the FTSE 100 index. Over the past year, Zenith Growth Fund achieved a total return of 14% with a standard deviation of 16%. During the same period, the FTSE 100 index returned 10% with a standard deviation of 10%. The risk-free rate, represented by UK Treasury Bills, was 3%. Based on this information and considering the principles of risk-adjusted performance measurement, how would you assess the performance of the Zenith Growth Fund relative to its benchmark, and what implications does this assessment have for Amelia’s investment strategy? Assume that the fund manager’s objective is to outperform the benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis.
Correct
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as the excess return (portfolio return minus risk-free rate) divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio Zenith and compare it to the benchmark. First, determine the excess return for Zenith: 14% (Portfolio Return) – 3% (Risk-Free Rate) = 11%. Then, divide the excess return by Zenith’s standard deviation: 11% / 16% = 0.6875. Next, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for the benchmark. The excess return for the benchmark is: 10% (Benchmark Return) – 3% (Risk-Free Rate) = 7%. Then, divide the excess return by the benchmark’s standard deviation: 7% / 10% = 0.7. Finally, we compare the Sharpe Ratios. Portfolio Zenith has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.6875, while the benchmark has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.7. Therefore, Portfolio Zenith underperformed the benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis. Consider a real-world analogy: Imagine two athletes, Anya and Ben. Anya consistently scores 14 points per game but is somewhat inconsistent, with her scoring varying significantly (high standard deviation). Ben scores 10 points per game, but his scoring is very consistent (low standard deviation). If the “risk-free rate” is 3 points (guaranteed contribution), we want to know who provides more “value” per unit of “risk.” Anya’s excess scoring is 11, but her inconsistency dilutes her value. Ben’s excess scoring is 7, but his consistency makes him a more reliable player. The Sharpe Ratio helps quantify this trade-off. Another analogy is comparing two investment strategies: one that yields high returns but with significant volatility (like investing in a volatile tech stock) versus another that yields lower but more stable returns (like investing in government bonds). The Sharpe Ratio helps an investor decide which strategy provides the best return for the level of risk they are willing to take. A novel application: Imagine a fund manager using the Sharpe Ratio to compare different asset allocation models. They could simulate various scenarios, calculate the Sharpe Ratio for each model under different market conditions, and then choose the model that provides the best risk-adjusted return across all scenarios. This approach helps in building a more robust and resilient portfolio.
Incorrect
The Sharpe Ratio measures risk-adjusted return. It’s calculated as the excess return (portfolio return minus risk-free rate) divided by the portfolio’s standard deviation. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. In this scenario, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for Portfolio Zenith and compare it to the benchmark. First, determine the excess return for Zenith: 14% (Portfolio Return) – 3% (Risk-Free Rate) = 11%. Then, divide the excess return by Zenith’s standard deviation: 11% / 16% = 0.6875. Next, we need to calculate the Sharpe Ratio for the benchmark. The excess return for the benchmark is: 10% (Benchmark Return) – 3% (Risk-Free Rate) = 7%. Then, divide the excess return by the benchmark’s standard deviation: 7% / 10% = 0.7. Finally, we compare the Sharpe Ratios. Portfolio Zenith has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.6875, while the benchmark has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.7. Therefore, Portfolio Zenith underperformed the benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis. Consider a real-world analogy: Imagine two athletes, Anya and Ben. Anya consistently scores 14 points per game but is somewhat inconsistent, with her scoring varying significantly (high standard deviation). Ben scores 10 points per game, but his scoring is very consistent (low standard deviation). If the “risk-free rate” is 3 points (guaranteed contribution), we want to know who provides more “value” per unit of “risk.” Anya’s excess scoring is 11, but her inconsistency dilutes her value. Ben’s excess scoring is 7, but his consistency makes him a more reliable player. The Sharpe Ratio helps quantify this trade-off. Another analogy is comparing two investment strategies: one that yields high returns but with significant volatility (like investing in a volatile tech stock) versus another that yields lower but more stable returns (like investing in government bonds). The Sharpe Ratio helps an investor decide which strategy provides the best return for the level of risk they are willing to take. A novel application: Imagine a fund manager using the Sharpe Ratio to compare different asset allocation models. They could simulate various scenarios, calculate the Sharpe Ratio for each model under different market conditions, and then choose the model that provides the best risk-adjusted return across all scenarios. This approach helps in building a more robust and resilient portfolio.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
A fund manager at a UK-based investment firm is constructing a diversified portfolio for a client with a moderate risk tolerance. The manager considers three asset classes: Equities, Fixed Income, and Real Estate. The expected returns, standard deviations, and correlations between the asset classes are as follows: * Equities: Expected Return = 12%, Standard Deviation = 20% * Fixed Income: Expected Return = 5%, Standard Deviation = 7% * Real Estate: Expected Return = 8%, Standard Deviation = 10% The correlation coefficients are: * Correlation (Equities, Fixed Income) = 0.3 * Correlation (Equities, Real Estate) = 0.5 * Correlation (Fixed Income, Real Estate) = 0.2 The fund manager decides on the following asset allocation: 40% Equities, 35% Fixed Income, and 25% Real Estate. Given a risk-free rate of 2%, what is the approximate Sharpe Ratio of this portfolio? The fund operates under the regulatory oversight of the FCA and adheres to MiFID II standards for client suitability and portfolio construction.
Correct
To determine the optimal portfolio allocation, we must first calculate the expected return and standard deviation for each asset class and the correlation between them. Let’s denote Equities as E, Fixed Income as FI, and Real Estate as RE. 1. **Calculate Expected Portfolio Return:** The expected portfolio return is the weighted average of the expected returns of each asset class: \[E(R_p) = w_E \cdot E(R_E) + w_{FI} \cdot E(R_{FI}) + w_{RE} \cdot E(R_{RE})\] \[E(R_p) = (0.40 \cdot 0.12) + (0.35 \cdot 0.05) + (0.25 \cdot 0.08)\] \[E(R_p) = 0.048 + 0.0175 + 0.02\] \[E(R_p) = 0.0855 \text{ or } 8.55\%\] 2. **Calculate Portfolio Variance:** The portfolio variance considers the weights, standard deviations, and correlations between asset classes. \[\sigma_p^2 = w_E^2 \cdot \sigma_E^2 + w_{FI}^2 \cdot \sigma_{FI}^2 + w_{RE}^2 \cdot \sigma_{RE}^2 + 2w_Ew_{FI}\rho_{E,FI}\sigma_E\sigma_{FI} + 2w_Ew_{RE}\rho_{E,RE}\sigma_E\sigma_{RE} + 2w_{FI}w_{RE}\rho_{FI,RE}\sigma_{FI}\sigma_{RE}\] \[\sigma_p^2 = (0.40^2 \cdot 0.20^2) + (0.35^2 \cdot 0.07^2) + (0.25^2 \cdot 0.10^2) + (2 \cdot 0.40 \cdot 0.35 \cdot 0.3 \cdot 0.20 \cdot 0.07) + (2 \cdot 0.40 \cdot 0.25 \cdot 0.5 \cdot 0.20 \cdot 0.10) + (2 \cdot 0.35 \cdot 0.25 \cdot 0.2 \cdot 0.07 \cdot 0.10)\] \[\sigma_p^2 = (0.16 \cdot 0.04) + (0.1225 \cdot 0.0049) + (0.0625 \cdot 0.01) + (0.001176) + (0.002) + (0.0001225)\] \[\sigma_p^2 = 0.0064 + 0.00060025 + 0.000625 + 0.001176 + 0.002 + 0.0001225\] \[\sigma_p^2 = 0.01092375\] 3. **Calculate Portfolio Standard Deviation:** The portfolio standard deviation is the square root of the portfolio variance: \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{\sigma_p^2}\] \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{0.01092375}\] \[\sigma_p \approx 0.1045 \text{ or } 10.45\%\] 4. **Calculate Sharpe Ratio:** The Sharpe Ratio measures the risk-adjusted return of the portfolio: \[\text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{E(R_p) – R_f}{\sigma_p}\] \[\text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.0855 – 0.02}{0.1045}\] \[\text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.0655}{0.1045}\] \[\text{Sharpe Ratio} \approx 0.6267\] A high Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted return. The Sharpe Ratio of 0.6267 suggests that for every unit of risk taken (measured by standard deviation), the portfolio generates 0.6267 units of excess return above the risk-free rate. This is a common metric used by fund managers to evaluate the performance of their portfolios relative to their risk exposure, helping them make informed decisions on asset allocation and portfolio construction. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better performance, making it a crucial tool for assessing the efficiency of investment strategies and comparing different portfolios.
Incorrect
To determine the optimal portfolio allocation, we must first calculate the expected return and standard deviation for each asset class and the correlation between them. Let’s denote Equities as E, Fixed Income as FI, and Real Estate as RE. 1. **Calculate Expected Portfolio Return:** The expected portfolio return is the weighted average of the expected returns of each asset class: \[E(R_p) = w_E \cdot E(R_E) + w_{FI} \cdot E(R_{FI}) + w_{RE} \cdot E(R_{RE})\] \[E(R_p) = (0.40 \cdot 0.12) + (0.35 \cdot 0.05) + (0.25 \cdot 0.08)\] \[E(R_p) = 0.048 + 0.0175 + 0.02\] \[E(R_p) = 0.0855 \text{ or } 8.55\%\] 2. **Calculate Portfolio Variance:** The portfolio variance considers the weights, standard deviations, and correlations between asset classes. \[\sigma_p^2 = w_E^2 \cdot \sigma_E^2 + w_{FI}^2 \cdot \sigma_{FI}^2 + w_{RE}^2 \cdot \sigma_{RE}^2 + 2w_Ew_{FI}\rho_{E,FI}\sigma_E\sigma_{FI} + 2w_Ew_{RE}\rho_{E,RE}\sigma_E\sigma_{RE} + 2w_{FI}w_{RE}\rho_{FI,RE}\sigma_{FI}\sigma_{RE}\] \[\sigma_p^2 = (0.40^2 \cdot 0.20^2) + (0.35^2 \cdot 0.07^2) + (0.25^2 \cdot 0.10^2) + (2 \cdot 0.40 \cdot 0.35 \cdot 0.3 \cdot 0.20 \cdot 0.07) + (2 \cdot 0.40 \cdot 0.25 \cdot 0.5 \cdot 0.20 \cdot 0.10) + (2 \cdot 0.35 \cdot 0.25 \cdot 0.2 \cdot 0.07 \cdot 0.10)\] \[\sigma_p^2 = (0.16 \cdot 0.04) + (0.1225 \cdot 0.0049) + (0.0625 \cdot 0.01) + (0.001176) + (0.002) + (0.0001225)\] \[\sigma_p^2 = 0.0064 + 0.00060025 + 0.000625 + 0.001176 + 0.002 + 0.0001225\] \[\sigma_p^2 = 0.01092375\] 3. **Calculate Portfolio Standard Deviation:** The portfolio standard deviation is the square root of the portfolio variance: \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{\sigma_p^2}\] \[\sigma_p = \sqrt{0.01092375}\] \[\sigma_p \approx 0.1045 \text{ or } 10.45\%\] 4. **Calculate Sharpe Ratio:** The Sharpe Ratio measures the risk-adjusted return of the portfolio: \[\text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{E(R_p) – R_f}{\sigma_p}\] \[\text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.0855 – 0.02}{0.1045}\] \[\text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{0.0655}{0.1045}\] \[\text{Sharpe Ratio} \approx 0.6267\] A high Sharpe Ratio indicates a better risk-adjusted return. The Sharpe Ratio of 0.6267 suggests that for every unit of risk taken (measured by standard deviation), the portfolio generates 0.6267 units of excess return above the risk-free rate. This is a common metric used by fund managers to evaluate the performance of their portfolios relative to their risk exposure, helping them make informed decisions on asset allocation and portfolio construction. A higher Sharpe Ratio indicates better performance, making it a crucial tool for assessing the efficiency of investment strategies and comparing different portfolios.